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6:00 PM
bah, $\leq 9$ in my last expression
Additionally, I have $E[X_k^2]=1$. Exploiting that, the above inequality can be rewritten $E[XY]+E[YZ]+E[XZ]\in [-1,3]$
 
@Ted Cuz I think about this for nontrivial bundles.
 
So that's a linear bound on the mutual covariances. By replacing one element of $u$ with $-1$ in three different ways, one can write down three other such inequalities
 
But wedge just means 'stick sigma out front'.
 
@MikeMiller I momentarily read that as Ted Cruz. I'm so very sorry for that.
 
@TedCruz You are not competent enough in any amount of mathematics to be welcome in this chat
 
6:02 PM
LOL
Oh oh, troublemaker @Alessandro is here
 
I am
Hi everyone
 
Hi @Alessandro
 
Is there a geometric explanation of the suspension isomorphism in homology?
 
Draw pictures!
 
@AlessandroCodenotti yeah
 
6:06 PM
@TedShifrin the only suspension I can draw is that of $S^1$!
 
Well that's no good
Since the definition tells you how to 'draw' it
 
Make your picture schematic in terms of a simplicial chain.
 
Gluing two cones together
 
Yeah sure, I was exaggerating
I know the glued cones picture
 
@TedShifrin what can one say about the natural logarithm of an algebraic number?
 
6:09 PM
What is homology geometrically?
@Ted: I'll write up your question about the boundary operator when I'm at the airport.
 
Airport? Where're you going this time?! :)
 
ohh, it's always transcendental.
by lindeman wierstrass theorem
 
@MikeMiller the problem with the approach we're following is that in this generality I don't have geometric intuition. I guess I should think about singular homology to see the geometry though?
 
My drawings were accurate! I don't know where I'm going from here though...
 
@CaptainAmerica: Just drawings won't do it. You actually have to do a calculation. If you put two vertices down, where must the third be to get the origin inside the triangle?
 
6:12 PM
@Ted Home. I'd talk elsewhere about it.
@AlessandroCodenotti let me get you a blog post
 
Ohh .. never mind :P
 
@Alessandro: Think simplicially rather than singularly.
 
@Ted It's what you're dealing with soon. I won't say more.
 
Ah, got it. My sympathies.
 
6:14 PM
@TedShifrin Yeah, I just wanted to see what I could get out of random attempts. (seeing if it was impossible or 100% of the time etc.) Now I have to try and do the actual probability part. lol
 
Thank you.
 
I guess you're right about our convergence to one another :(
 
@MikeMiller Thanks! I know what to read this evening now!
 
The math is crazy in here today. :)
I guess @Balarka went off to write down Riemann-Roch.
I have to give an MIT-sponsored talk to middle schoolers on Sunday. So I have to prepare a handout for that. That should take a few hours.
 
bye ted
 
6:16 PM
See ya Ted. Thanks for the suggestions and the problem :D
 
@TedShifrin Hmm so if I have a simplicial structure on $X$ ($\Delta$-complex? I forgot how those are called) I get one for free on $\Sigma X$
 
I haven't left yet :P
 
lol :)
 
I need to get back to the dorm and write this down, can't be worked out on the bus... But I'll think about it later, thanks for the suggestion!
 
A $\Delta$-complex is a bit weaker than a triangulation, but that's fine. OK, @Alessandro. Talk later.
 
6:20 PM
can somebody verify my proof
it's not really a proof it's just a question
 
I'm always disappointed when an interesting problem turns out to only have a solution in terms of a transcendental equation
 
@Ted You know I think about this as singular submanifolds.
 
why?
 
Which is why I think this is quite clear, from that perspective
 
oh because transcendental equations can't really be solved analytically oftentimes
 
6:24 PM
@MikeMiller hi
 
because it means that you're going to have to resort to numerics to get the answer, and usually you might as well have done so from the get-go
 
I wish we have a more direct grasp on what exactly make something transcendental
 
@MikeM: Who are singular submanifolds? I'm losted.
 
almost all proof by contradiction never make use of the transcendental properties of the assumed number of function
 
6:25 PM
hi @Leaky
 
Thsy just try to bound it so that it becomes a contradiction, so showing it is not algebraic, and hence by law of excluded middle, must be transcendental
 
In my case, it's $\sin\theta-\theta \cos\theta=\pi/2$ with $\theta\in (\pi/2,\pi)$
no real hope of getting an exact answer for that
 
secret what would you like to get?
 
A list of properties every transcendental has to obey
 
hm
 
6:27 PM
The only known universal property of transcendentals is that they don't solve polynomials and their repeated fraction does not repeat nor terminate
but almost none is known about other properties
 
Or, equivalently, find $\theta$ in that interval such that $\int_0^\theta t\sin t\,dt=\pi/2$
 
@TedShifrin Homology classes. :)
Modulo bordism.
 
Oh, sure.
 
Poincare style.
 
But for Alessandro's purposes, I think suspending a bunch of simplices is pretty clear.
 
6:29 PM
The proof of lindlemann weistrass seemed to suggest transcendentals may have a universal property that when compared to rationals, it somehow deviates faster than if it is a rational for their nth term approximation
but I have not checked whether it is really the case
 
He started non-singular, but Heegaard pointed out that led to errors. So he moved to simplicial (basically the same idea)
@Ted Agreed.
 
@secret @Semiclassical don't know if this helps but: $e^{e/\ln(x)}=e$ is always transcendental when $x \in \Bbb Q(0,1)$
by lindeman wierstrass
in this case $x=e^e$
 
It is also interesting to note that some transcendentals such as $\pi$ and $e$ has geometric relations that are basically "here's a circle", "here's some oblique line such that blahblahblah is satisfied". That is, when expressed algebraically, all of this is a countably long series expression, but somehow mapping that to curves $\Bbb{C}$, we get only a finite sentence
 
@Secret I can prove the transcendence of $e^e$
 
Do we have some theorem that governs which countably long schema of proofs can be mapped to a finite proof using analytic geometry/high school geometry like arguments, that I might need to dig into the literature to find out
@Ultradark show
 
6:36 PM
okay it's probs wrong but i'll go for it
 
@TedShifrin I don't know if it matters, but the triangles that have the center inside are scalene and the ones I've drawn that don't are isosceles. I'm going to work on the vectors things now that I have measurements.
 
That doesn't seem right, @CaptainAmerica. Certainly an equilateral triangle has the center inside.
 
Whoops, I haven't drawn an equilateral facepalm (I got ahead of myself.)
 
@Ultradark ?
 
For isosceles, you can get both, @CaptainAmerica.
 
6:42 PM
Hm. Maybe I should just forget the drawings. Should I have started purely from computation?
 
@secret Assume by contradiction that $e^e$ is not transcendental. We can construct: $e^{e/\ln{x}}=e; x\in \Bbb Q(0,1)$ The solution is $x=e^e$. By L.W., $x$ must be transcendental. So we have reached a contradiction. Hence, $e^e$ must be transcendental for $x\in \Bbb Q(0,1)$
 
This is wrong. L.W. said nothing about $e^{transcendental}$
L.W. only said $e^{algebraic}$ is transcendental
 
In that vein, there's no reason to expect that $x=e^e$ is a rational number between 0 and 1
(unless there's some other meaning intended to $\mathbb{Q}(0,1)$.)
 
Some random idea probably because I am too tired by the chemistry stuff:
Is it possible to express $e$ as an infinite sum of ln expressions?
 
maybe, but that wouldn't help much here. L.W. is for a finite number of $e^\alpha$ with $\alpha$ algebraic
 
6:47 PM
No, I am thinking about:
Suppose $e$ can be written as a convergent sum of the form:
$$e = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \ln(a_n)$$
 
So, write $e^e$ as an infinite product
 
Take $e$ both sides, since $e$ is a holomorphic function, and the sum is convergent, we can move the $e$ inside:
 
uh
"e is a holomorphic function"?
("exponentiation is a holomorphic function"?)
 
uh, $e^z$ is entire, right?
 
right. but $e$ is a number, not a function :P
 
6:50 PM
@CaptainAmerica: Drawings are important. I asked you earlier to think about where the third vertex should go relative to the first two ...
 
ah, bad terminology, sorry about that
Anyway:
$$e^e = e^{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \ln (a_n)} = \prod_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{\ln (a_n)} = \prod_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n$$
 
well, note that $e=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{n!}$. therefore $e^e = \prod_{n=0}^\infty e^{1/n!}\implies a_n=e^{1/n!}$
 
ok, that's very bad, all the $a_n$ are transcendental, meaning anything can happen, nvm then
 
that's one identification of $a_n$, at least
 
acutally, I am not sure if $e^{\frac{1}{n!}}$ and $e^{\frac{1}{m!}}$ for integers $n\neq m$ are algerbriacally independent
 
6:55 PM
there's an infinite number of such identifications, since it amounts to a series with terms $c_n=\ln a_n$ converging to $e$
 
@Semiclassical okay I see what you mean
 
If there exist an identification such that $a_n$ are all algebraic, then we can bound that product more easily since we knew more about algebraic numbers
 
In general, if something isn't known to be transcendental, there's probably a good reason for it. new results in transcendental numbers are few and far between
 
29 mins ago, by Secret
The only known universal property of transcendentals is that they don't solve polynomials and their repeated fraction does not repeat nor terminate
All the proofs I have seen so far relies on proving something that is not algebraic, instead of trying to directly probe transcendence
 
@Semiclassical but isn't what I said correct?
wait no it's not correct
lol
 
6:59 PM
@Secret the irrationals with repeating continued fractions are precisely the quadratic algebraic numbers, e.g. $\sqrt[3]{2}$ doesn't have a terminating or repeating continued fraction expansion
 
@Secret reminds me of nothing so much as this: scp-wiki.net/scp-055
 
@MatheinBoulomenos ooops, forgot the non qudratic algebraic numbers
But the point is still maintain: We know almost no direct results on what exactly make a number transcendental
I am not sure if we have tools to directly probe transcendence. I knew there are two main methods in transcendental number theory, such as diophataine approximation (establishing bounds by approximating with rationals), and auxillary functions (certain carefully chosen functions that has many zeros at the number we want to probe, but otherwise I don't fully understood how they work yet)
Even less is known about composition of transcendental functions
 
We're much better at saying what it means to fail to be transcendental
 
@Secret I can solve infinitely many of those
correction: I can solve an infinite number of transcendental equations
 
Actually, I think that proposal above is not entirely useless, but I don't know how one can prove or disprove that:
Basically the proposition is:
 
7:06 PM
of course, this revolves around the notion that arguing about transcendent numbers is 'not entirely useless' in the first place :)
 
Proposition: Let $t$ be transcendental. Does there always exist sequence $(a_n)$ such that $a_n \in \Bbb{A}$ and:
$$t = \prod_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n$$
I am not sure what will a contradiction of this could look like if there is one
the issue is that when operations goes to infinity, a string of algebraic objects can become transcendental
 
$e^{1/\ln(x)}=x^n$
that's an analytically solvable transcendental equation
 
Hi guyz!
 
This is how transcendental functions like $\sin $ can give transcendental values for rational arguments, because an infinite sum is involved
 
Anyone here to answer a general question?
 
7:09 PM
@user602338 just ask; don't ask to ask
 
@Secret I think that boils down to: Can every transcendental number be written as the limit of an algebraic sequence?
 
How many books (not school or university ones) do ypu read every year?
 
(a sequence of partial sums is just a special case of a sequence, after all)
 
1 @user602338
 
7:11 PM
@Semiclassical Well it has to be possible, because the rationals are dense in the reals, thus any reals (even indefinable ones) will be expressible as a convergent sequence of rationals, let alone algebraics
But infinite sums and products, I am not as sure
 
Eh, there's no practical difference. If there's such a sum, then the sequence $a_1,a_1+a_2,a_1+a_2+a_3,\cdots $ converges to $t$
And if such a sequence exists, you can get a sum by taking differences of successive terms
 
@Ultradark where are yoh living?
 
@user602338 what's your math level
 
High school
 
hmm.. ok
 
7:13 PM
okay I live in the US
 
Where are you from ?
Ok
 
to be sure, there are two versions of this
1) Does such a sequence exist for any transcendental $t$?
2) Given a particular such $t$, can I find such a sequence in a useful way?
 
I guess I might try to bound that product in wikipedia tomorrow, as it is 6:13 now and I must go to sleep
Leave any note and I will read it when I woke up
 
@Ultradark I just want to knosw that how do they teach you there!?
 
The former is true, but the latter need not be.
 
7:14 PM
but yeah, 2) will be a useful point of investigation
 
Night
 
How many years have you studied ?@Ultradark
 
@user602338 I've been studying all my life
 
@TedShifrin I think I need to take a linner break to clear my head. Be back later.
 
How old are you about?
Abve 30 years old? @Ultradark
 
7:17 PM
I am done with the press for today
 
Sorry @Ultradark but what is press?!
What do you mean?
I am asking that because i amn not an antive speaker
Anyone online here guys?
 
I'm here, but I'm not sure what he means by press.
 
@MikeMiller wut if i only know a proof by induction
 
7:33 PM
@Semiclassical then prove it by induction
@CaptainAmerica16 hi
 
@LeakyNun Hey
 
but induction is laaaaame
 
@Semiclassical no it isn't
it's the foundation of maths
 
In truth, I do tend to find induction to be a rather disappointing form of proof at times.
 
I'm not good at induction yet.
 
7:35 PM
It certainly validates a proposition. But I feel like it doesn't always give an insight into why it's true.
 
Remind me what the ping was in response to
 
your starred remark
For instance, it's easy to prove 1+2+3+...+n = n(n+1)/2 by induction. But the simple Gauss argument is both more memorable and more illuminating
To the extent that the proof by induction illuminates, it's because the way you might infer the formula is by looking for a formula $An^2+Bn+C$, imposing the base cases, and figuring out what A,B,C will need to be to make the inductive step work
 
Ah yeah
Inducrion feels like brute Force
 
the case of recursion relations is a bit special of course
to me the insight behind them is basically the other way around: If someone gives me a polynomial function $p(x)$ of degree $n$, then $p(x+1)-p(x)$ is a polynomial of degree $n-1$
And then it's not hard to work out which p(x) you'll need in order to get p(x+1)-p(x)=x, etc
 
7:51 PM
@Semiclassical but how would you formalize Gauss' argument?
 
I think the 'disguised' version I wrote earlier works just fine
Let $j>0$ be some integer or half-integer number. Then $j+(j-1)+...+(-j+1)+(-j)=0$ by inspection.
Now add $j$ to each of the $2j+1$ terms. Bam, $2j+(2j-1)+\cdots+1+0=j(2j+1)$.
 
8:07 PM
One thing I will say in favor of induction over Gauss’s symmetry argument, though, is that it’s the former that generalizes in a handy way
 
9:02 PM
Flight delayed an hour so gonna miss my connection
Love that
 
@MikeMiller a geometer missing his connection
what a tragedy
 
Lmao
 
9:24 PM
@MikeMiller so what are you going to do?
 
Not my choice
Waiting in line to find out what they'll do for me
 
@MikeMiller you're not having a lot of luck with planes lately...
You got stuck in Münich too iirc
 
Yes
But that was a 10 hour delay and I was sick so that was about as bad as possible
 
@MikeMiller if i were u id prob just lay down and die
 
Don't say that out loud, it can always get worse if there's an airline involved
 
9:30 PM
@EricSilva I don't want to live but I'm too afraid to die
 
the temporary struggle
 
9:54 PM
@Ted This is the gorgeous note of Michael A I was thinking of.
Also @Eric though you won't parse all of it yet
 
Howdy everyone
 
hi
fargle
 
Aw man, nerds
How's it going?
 
@Daminark I learnt BCT for T2 locally compact spaces
and managed to prove by myself that open susbet of T2 locally compact space is locally compact
 
Pretty good. Just finished helping a friend do DC circuit stuff in preparation for his final today.
 
10:07 PM
@Dami wagwan ma nurd
 
I think he'll do fine, but he has a fair helping of test anxiety, which I hope he's able to push through
 
Nice! I think that version of BCT has come up in topological dynamics at least once
@Igjo not too much, how about you?
 
@LeakyNun Wow Nerds really is accurate
Also I got on a later flight so I'll be home just an hour late
 
Well that's at least something
 
@Daminark not muuuch, just arrived home and came here to observe
as always
 
10:09 PM
Nice
Got psets due in AG and AT so tonight is gonna be a bit busy
But after that things are gonna cool down a bit
 
Nice, I can't wait to start back up
Just reading and not attending courses is a bit lame
 
hey guys
 
hey pilot
I found a terrible way to count primes
 
One by one
1,2,3,4,5...
 
So $\pi(x)$ counts primes. That is to say, it counts the number of primes up to a given integer $x$. This function is very important in number theory. I was wondering how well the following counts primes: $\phi(x)-c(x) = \int_2^x e^{1/\ln(x)}dx-\int_2^x 1 dx .$ I tried making a table of values for $\pi(x)$ and comparing them to $\phi(x)-c(x).$
 
10:21 PM
Hmmmm, I wonder if you could have a worse way of counting primes than doing so one-by-one.
 
it definitely over counts the primes. for example looking at $\pi(x)$ and $x=10^5$
gives you $9592$ primes
and $\phi(x)-c(x)$ gives $10119$ primes
so it's definitely over counting
so yeah, that's what I had to say
 
10:47 PM
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{-n}$ is absolutely convergent, right?
 
Any convergent series with only positive terms is automatically absolutely convergent, @pilotmath.
(Same if all the terms are nonnegative.)
 
@Fargle I did not know that, thank you! Just to double check, that sum equals 1 right lol
 
Indeed.
 
The infinite sum that is.
@Fargie do you have time for another question?
 
just ask
 
10:55 PM
question refers to this page: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2955683/…
But I'm trying to find the distribution/density function without convolution, as convolution hasn't been covered yet
 
Can somebody explain to me why `-log[H+] = -log[H+] + 4` reduces to `[H+] = [H+] * 10^-4` (There are supposed to be subscripts 1 and 2 for the [H+].

I understand multiplying through by -1 to get:
`log[H+] = log[H+] - 4`
But using exponentiation I thought you would get `[H+] = [H+] - 10^4` not `[H+] = [H+] * 10^-4`
I do not understand where that multiplication comes from
$-log[H+]_1 = -log[H+]_2 + 4$ reduces to $[H+]_1 = [H+] * 10^-4$
 
11:14 PM
The subscripts are super important here, @Startec.
So you have $\log[H^+]_1 = \log[H^+]_2 - 4$, so taking $10$ to both sides we get $$[H^+]_1 = [H^+]_2\cdot 10^{-4}.$$
Remember that $10^{a+b} = 10^a\cdot 10^b$.
re @Fargle @Leaky
 
hi @chemist
 
@TedShifrin where did you get the $10^{a+b} = 10^a\cdot 10^b$
 
That's the basic rule for exponents.
Try it out with $a=2$ and $b=3$. Write it out.
 
oh yes, but where does it apply in this equation?
 
Oh, $a=\log[H^+]_2$ and $b=-4$.
 
11:18 PM
oh i see. Thanks!
 
You're welcome.
 
Does $f_n : [0,1) \to \Bbb{R}$ given by $f_n(x) = x^n$ converge uniformly to $0$ on $[0,1)$ (notice that the interval does not include $1$)?
 
Draw the graphs.
If you drawn an $\varepsilon$-fence around $y=0$, do all the graphs stay inside for large enough $n$?
 
I think so, because $f_n$ is decreasing.
 
Draw it.
 
11:22 PM
Ooh, drawing.
 
But $f_n(0)=0$ for all $n$.
So I'm not sure what you're suggesting.
 
I don't care about what's happening at $0$, @user193319. Draw the entire graph on $[0,1)$.
@CaptainAmerica: Are you poking fun at me?
Visualizing stuff is a huge part of mathematics ;)
 
Okay, I drew them. It looks like they are all shrinking to $0$, which is what I said above.
 
@TedShifrin wait I still do not understand why $-4$ turns into $10^-4$ instead of $-10^4$
 
11:25 PM
They're all inside the $\varepsilon$-fence for the whole interval $[0,1)$?
The exponent rule, @Startec.
 
Study it carefully.
It doesn't look like it to me, @user193319. They get all the way up to (but not including) $y=1$.
Draw the darned fence in there.
 
But none will ever equal $1$, because the functions have domain $[0,1)$.
 
@user193319, so what? Don't they all cross $y=1/2$? $y=3/4$? My $\varepsilon$ is pretty small.
 
@LeakyNun can I ask a question
 
11:28 PM
re @MikeM ...
 
@Ted Did you get the ping about Michael:s note?
 
Yes, I downloaded it, thanks.
 
:)
My plane is FINALLy taking off.
 
Haven't seen him in a year. Is he doing OK?
Safe travels.
This is the second plane?
 
No.
 
11:29 PM
Oh.
 
Long delay.
I changed my first connection. I have to change my second when mine is late.
 
@TedShifrin Hmm...Well, the problem I am trying to solve is the following: $g : [0,1] \to \Bbb{R}$ continuous with $g(1) = 0$ implies that $x^ng(x)$ converges uniformly to $0$ on $[0,1]$...Since $g$ is continuous, it is bounded by $M$. I was going to define $f_n : [0,1] \to \Bbb{R}$ to be $f_n(x) = Mx^n$ for $x \neq 1$ and $f_n(1)=0$; and then use the Squeezee theorem...
 
OMG, so many legs, @MikeM. Good luck.
 
If that won't work, what else is there do to?
 
Well, @user193319, what does this have to do with the question you're being stubborn about?
You obviously need a better approach.
 
11:31 PM
@Ted No, I misspoke, then. I have exactly one connecting flight. But I changed it once. And now I will have to change it again.
 
YOu need to think more about graphs and visualize what's going on, @user193319.
Oh, I misunderstood. I get it, @MikeM.
 
No, I used the same phrasing with someone else and they were confused too.
 
@TedShifrin Because if that sequence does in fact uniformly converge, then since $|x_ng(x)| \le f_n(x)$ on $[0,1]$, it would imply $x^n g(x) \to 0$ uniformly by the squeeze theorem.
 
I think you should say "I changed my connection the first time. I'll have to change it a second time ..."
@user193319: But you're wrong. So you need a new picture and a new understanding.
 
I know...So how else might I approach that problem? I tried using uniform continuity of $g$, but I couldn't see how to use it.
 
11:33 PM
What's the MOST important thing you know about $g$ (other than continuity)?
 
That $g(1) = 0$, which is why I immediately jumped to defining $f_n$ as I did.
 
Now draw pictures.
Don't use computers. Use your brain and pencil and paper.
 
I have been using my brain. I just used wolfram to conveniently show you what I had drawn on paper, rather than taking a picture and uploading it.
 
Fair enough :)
Now draw $x^ng(x)$ for various $n$.
 
11:35 PM
@MikeMiller safe flight
 
Start by drawing $g$, of course.
 
All right. I'll give that a try.
 
I just feel like some theorem will do it
sure, I understand this is important
(don't get annoyed :P
 
0
Q: Prime counting function $\phi(x)-c(x)$ vs. $x/\ln(x)$

UltradarkSo $\pi(x)$ is the prime counting function. That is to say, it counts the number of primes below a given integer $x$. This function is very important in number theory. I was wondering how well the following counts primes: $\phi(x)-c(x) = \int_2^x e^{1/\ln(x)}dx-\int_2^x 1 dx .$ I tried making a t...

I told you I found a bad way to count primes!
 
There is a theorem, in fact, @Leaky, but one can just do it bare-hands for this example.
 
11:39 PM
And what I learned from this is that it is very hard to count primes
 
Does uniform continuity figure in the proof in any way?
 
I think all you really need is continuity of $g$ at $1$.
But I might be wrong.
 
And you use this to tame $x^n$ near $x=1$, right?
 
Yup.
 
Okay. Let me try putting the pieces together.
 
11:46 PM
What I wanted you to see by drawing the original $x^n$ and the $\varepsilon$-fence is that the places the graphs cross the fence march off toward $x=1$ as $n$ increases.
 
How does an equation of the form $y + 1 = Ay$ simplify to $1 / (1 - A)$?
 
Startec, you need decent math skills to succeed in chemistry. Just saying.
 
it doesn't
 
Always put all the $y$'s on one side of the equation.
And use parentheses, is what Leaky is bitchin' about.
 
no
 
11:47 PM
Oh, no, he's bitching about more.
shuts up and leaves the bitching to Leaky
 
leaves
 
I think it does simplify to that.
 
@Leaky: Eats Leaves and Shoots
 
o.O
 
Nope, @Startec. Put both things with $y$ on the right.
 
11:49 PM
ok i'm going to sleep
 
Do you know that famous book, @Leaky? Importance of Punctuation.
 
I think Leaky was thinking that equations don't reduce to expressions, but they reduce to other equations
 
Ah yes, it does.
I see, so you put Y on both sides then factor it out of the rhs and you do get that answer.
 
Nope, you're off by a sign error.
no, @mercio, nothing so pedantic (for a change)
 
I only saw the sign error later
 
11:51 PM
Is that my fault?!
:D
 
no
 
Oh, @Leaky only threatened to leave.
 

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