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7:14 PM
If $A,B$ are closed sets in $M_n(\Bbb{C})$, the algebra of all $n \times n$ matrices, is it true that $A+B$ is closed?
 
just treat $M_n(\Bbb C)$ as $\Bbb C^{n^2}$
 
You need either $A$ or $B$ compact
 
but it's closed
 
What's closed?
 
A and B
 
7:21 PM
And I'm saying that I don't think that's enough and one of them compact is needed
 
hmm
do you have a counter-example?
 
There are easy examples.
 
Indeed
There are counterexamples in $\Bbb R$ even
 
Think about Minkowski sum of $\Bbb Z$ and $\alpha \Bbb Z$ where $\alpha$ is irrational
 
ah
 
7:22 PM
Those can be replicated in a one-dimensional subspace here
A={1,2,3...}, B={-2+1/2,-3+1/3, -4+1/4...}
 
I suppose the y-axis and y=1/x in the plane as well
 
What's true (in every normed vector space) is that $A+B$ is closed if one of them is compact and the other is closed and $A+B$ is compact if both are
 
Indeed.
 
Can we have an infinite-dimension example where closed-and-bounded plus closed-and-bounded is not closed?
 
Hmm...I see. Thanks everyone!
 
7:27 PM
Hm, seems like yes, actually
$\{e_n:n\in\Bbb N\}$ and $\{-e_n+\frac1n:n\in\Bbb N\}$
for the infinite-dimensional vector space with basis vectors $e_n$
 
$\Bbb Z^\infty$ and $\alpha \Bbb Z^\infty$ in $\Bbb R^\infty$ should similarly work...
 
Not for the closed-and-bounded thing
 
In an appropriate topology on R^infty
Oh ok
 
what kind of sorcery happens in $[0,1]^\infty$?
 
'cause they're not bounded
 
7:30 PM
Yeah I didn't pay attention. Sorry.
 
@LeakyNun what do you mean?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I thought that space holds a wealth of counter-examples
 
@LeakyNun If you make it $[0,1]\times[0,\frac12]\times[0,\frac13]\times\dotsb$ you make it a metric space
 
@AkivaWeinberger surely $\frac1{2^n}$ you mean?
 
(Unlike $[0,1]^\infty$, where $(0,0,0,\dotsb)$ and $(1,1,1,\dotsb)$ are infinitely far apart… unless you just want finitely many nonzero coordinates)
 
7:31 PM
If we know a set is compact, sequentially compact, and Hausdorff, can we infer it's first countable?
 
@LeakyNun Nah, no need
 
surely the harmonic series diverges?
@Daminark the long line?
 
Distance is square root of the sum of the squares
 
@AkivaWeinberger you make it a subset of $\ell^2$, but it's a metrizable space in any case
 
Sum of the squares converges
 
7:32 PM
oh...
 
Like Pythagoras
 
I dunno the long line, one sec
 
tsk tsk Leaky
 
Apparently $\prod[1,\frac1n]$ is homogenous, though. No idea how.
 
Every polish space can be embedded in $[0,1]^{\Bbb N}$ if you want a weird property
As a $G_\delta$ subset of it or something
 
7:33 PM
@Daminark Basically, it turns out that if you multiply a countable ordinal by $[0,1)$, you get something homeomorphic to $[0,1)$.
(Like, if your ordinal is $2$, you can think of it as $[0,1)\cup[1,2)$.)
(Like it's $\omega+1$, it's $[0,.4)\cup[.4,.49)\cup[.49,.499)\cup\dotsb\cup[0.5,1)$.)
Now, if your ordinal is $\omega_1$, then you get the long line.
Or the long ray. Not sure. Maybe you need to add one more point at the very end for it to be the long line.
That last point is needed for it to be compact, anyway.
Though it's sequentially compact either way.
 
And that's not first countable?
 
Nah. $\omega_1$ is uncountable so stuff gets messed up
 
Fucking topological spaces
 
nvm it isn't compact @Daminark
 
Oh it turns out I don't need that
 
7:38 PM
Uncountable product of $I$'s is compact Hausdorff but not sequentially compact
So I don't know an example either
 
@AkivaWeinberger Homogenous?
 
@LeakyNun ??
 
@AlessandroCodenotti There's a homeomorphism from it to itself that maps any given point to any other given point, I think
 
So what I was trying to do was prove that if $X^*$ is separable or $X$ is reflexive, you can find a sequence $x_n$ such that $\|x_n\| = 1$ but $x_n \to 0$ weakly
 
7:40 PM
Like, all the points "look the same"
 
@Akiva The long line is very noncompact, right?
 
2
A: Long line is connected and compact

Cameron BuieYou can actually show that the long line is path-connected, which shows that it is connected. Pick any two points $x=\langle\alpha,s\rangle$ and $y=\langle\beta,t\rangle$ on the long line, with $x<y$. If $\alpha=\beta,$ then $s<t$ and the long line interval $[x,y]$ is readily homeomorphic to the ...

 
@AkivaWeinberger So like there's an homeomorphism swapping the "corner" and points in the middle? Weird
 
If $X^*$ is separable, the unit ball in $X$ is metrizable
 
No, not if you close it off at the end @BalarkaSen
 
7:41 PM
I mean it's not paracompact, even
@Akiva Hm?
 
What's paracompact?
 
So in particular it's first countable, so all you have to do is say aight, we know in general for the dual space that the weak closure of the unit sphere is the unit ball
 
I do not think I know of that construction
Paracompact means every cover has a locally finite refinement
You can choose a subcover so that every point gets hits by finitely many elements of the subcover
 
This is $\big(\omega_1\times[0,1)\big)\cup\{\omega_1\}$
 
Reflexive was throwing me off. But all you gotta do is find a closed separable subspace, that'll be separable, so its dual will be separable, then apply it there and everything's good
 
7:43 PM
@BalarkaSen The thing is, once you choose an open set containing the point $\omega_1$, it has to contain all but countably many ordinals in it as well
so you can choose a finite subcover of the remainder easily
 
@Daminark Stupid question: what's wrong with just picking a sequence $y_n\rightharpoonup 0$ but $y_n\not\rightarrow 0$ and taking $x_n=y_n/||y_n||$?
 
Paracompact is essential for getting a partition of unity, which as a manifold the long line does not admit, so send that space to the deepest core of the hell to starve and self-mutilate and die and rot and decompose and turn into nothingness
 
oh right, if you compactify the long ray then it is compact
 
@AkivaWeinberger Aha.
I do not know this stuff
 
7:44 PM
"Extended long line", then
 
@Alessandro will such a sequence always exist?
 
right @AkivaWeinberger
 
It won't actually
In general
Look at $\ell^1$, weak = strong convergence
 
something something Schur property :/
 
@Akiva Wait, so what does the local structure near the two infinities look like?
 
7:45 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti You know what, I think the idea is,
you can embed a square in a cube such that any given point in the square lands on any given point in the cube
 
I guess it's like an infinite broom at the endpoints or whatever
 
And $(\ell^1)^\star$ isn't separable so we're fine
 
This thing is infinite-dimensional though so it's kinda one dimension smaller than itself
 
I don't know if you need it to be a surjective function though
 
7:46 PM
Yeah that webpage makes me want to throw up
 
@BalarkaSen Two?
 
it's the third time in 10 minutes someone links it lol
 
Are you making this long on both ends?
 
Right?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Yeah, let's just take two-point compactification
 
7:47 PM
Ok, I'm not following your reasoning as to why this works if $X^\star$ is separable
 
I am guessing the end result would not be path connected
Because of that broom thing happening
 
> The compactness of the Hilbert cube can also be proved without the Axiom of Choice by constructing a continuous function from the usual Cantor set onto the Hilbert cube.
Hmm
@BalarkaSen I don't understand
It should be path connected
Oh, wait
 
Really?
 
@Alessandro so if you have a first countable space $A$ and some subset $B$
 
Nah, never mind
Sorry
 
7:48 PM
$x\in \overline{B}$ iff there's some sequence $x_n$ in $B$ which converges to $x$
 
I don't know what you mean by "broom" though
 
So now, if you look at the weak topology on any Banach space, you know the closure of the unit sphere is the closed unit ball
 
$L := \omega_1 \times [0,1)$ in the order topology is path connected, but not compact. $L^*$, the one-point compactification of $L$, is however not path connected. $0$ cannot be joined with $\infty$ by a continuous path. It is "too far away" — kahen Oct 4 '13 at 19:32
 
@Daminark wait when did it become first countable?
 
@AkivaWeinberger I was thinking that near the infinities it looks like the infinite broom, sorta
 
7:50 PM
If $X^*$ is separable, the weak topology on the closed unit ball in $X$ is metrizable
 
@Daminark uhm, ok
 
I do want to know what a neighborhood of the infinity looks like, though, rigorously
Does it have a well-known homeomorphism type?
 
@BalarkaSen This is an ordered set
 
This is the proof that if $X$ is separable, the closed unit ball in $X^*$ with the weak* topology is metrizable
 
7:51 PM
@Daminark yeah, that's the result I was thinking about
 
Yeah I know. The topology comes from the lexicographic ordering on $\omega_1 \times [0, 1)$
 
why $(\frac12,1]$ lol @BalarkaSen
seems so arbitrary
 
So how could it be a broom
 
There's a similar argument to show that if $X^*$ is separable, the unit ball in $X$ is weak metrizable
 
7:52 PM
Like, Brezis doesn't even bother going through it, they just say yeah the proof is identical with roles swapped
 
@Akiva I wasn't claiming it to be, that's just what came to mind.
I don't actually know what it looks like
@LeakyNun You could take any bit of the x-axis and it'd be true
Any bit disjoint from the origin
 
Yeah, I was just reading it, we didn't do it in the functional analysis course so I just skipped it when I went through Brezis's book
 
In general topology, a branch of mathematics, the integer broom topology, is an example of a topology on the so-called integer broom space X. == Definition of the integer broom space == The integer broom space X is a subset of the plane R2. Assume that the plane is parametrised by polar coordinates. The integer broom contains the origin and the points (n,θ) ∈ R2 such that n is a non-negative integer, and θ ∈ {1/k : k ∈ N and k ≥ 1}. The image on the right gives an illustration for 0 ≤ n ≤ 5 and 1/15 ≤ θ ≤ 1. Geometrically, the space consists of a series of convergent sequences. For a fixed n,...
Hmm
 
I mean, any complete order topology looks like a line to me
36
Q: Why is the Hilbert Cube homogeneous?

Jason DeVitoThe Hilbert Cube $H$ is defined to be $[0,1]^{\mathbb{N}}$, i.e., a countable product of unit intervals, topologized with the product topology. Now, I've read that the Hilbert Cube is homogeneous. That is, given two points $p, q\in H$, there is a homeomorphism $f:H\rightarrow H$ with $f(p)=q$. ...

@AlessandroCodenotti
 
@AkivaWeinberger It shouldn't be a manifold with boundary at the endpoints!
Looking like a line to me means homeomorphic to [0, 1]. Sorry.
I won't accept order bullshit
 
7:56 PM
@BalarkaSen Well, yeah, 'cause a neighborhood of the endpoints look like another copy of the (compact) long line!
 
:P
Ah, really?
I suppose you're right. Weird!
 
@AkivaWeinberger looks like an hard result, thanks
 
Look at the edit on the original question @Ale
 
This is the new meme everyone
This is what we were waiting for
 
what the hell
1988: maybe 30 years later people will have flying cars
2018: skidaddle skidoodle your dick is now a noodle
 
8:04 PM
?
 
a meme within a meme @usukidoll
 
Ohhhhhhh
 
guys if i have function $f(x,y)=x^3+3y^4$ i want to define a function for tangent plane on point $f(2,1)$ $$ \nabla f(x,y)=\begin{bmatrix} 3x^2 \\ 12y^3 \end{bmatrix} $$ and in point $$\nabla f(2,1)=\begin{bmatrix} 12 \\ 12 \end{bmatrix}$$ i can call tangent plane function $w(x,y)$, $$ w(x,y)=f(2,1)+f_x(2,1)(x-2)+f_y(2,1)(y-1) $$ $$ w(x,y)=12x+12y-25 $$ is this correct ?
 
stackedit.io is really useful
 
8:22 PM
@BalarkaSen welp
 
your right
 
my right is your left
 
@Semiclassical how would i define tangent plane ?
 
well, it would be right if there was an actual line defined there
as it stands, $w(x,y)$ is just a function
 
9:00 PM
Hey @Ted
 
Hi, Balarka.
 
I'm actually computing something in moving frames and think I am succeeding
 
@Semiclassic @Tuki: I interpret that Tuki means that the tangent plane is the graph of that function. IT's correct (but I haven't checked arithmetic).
Whoa, @Balarka. Do you have a fever?
 
Hahah.
I'll disclose what I am computing if I succeed. I'm pretty excited; I think I am about to find a different proof of Darboux's theorem
Completely geometrically
 
hi Ted
wanna see something im working on
 
9:03 PM
I wondered if you were pursuing that, based on what I caught a while ago. It's really a differential equations proof, and I'm dubious.
 
@TedShifrin yes this is what i meant
 
hi Meow
 
Sup chat
 
@BalarkaSen alright I'm outta here have a good day
 
ill email it to you
 
9:04 PM
Just had my AoPS precalculus kids work out what the fifth roots of unity are explicitly.
 
Hibye Ted, Eric, Meow
:P
 
@TedShifrin Yes, but Moser's proof sheds 0 light on the fact that it's an integrability condition. But I'll let you know what I have after I work it out a little
I'll send you a TeXed up thing
 
@TedShifrin did they work geometrically or algebraically?
 
@Daminark lmao
 
@BalarkaSen hmu too my dude
 
9:05 PM
I will!
 
Well, ultimately, it can be proved as an application of Cartan-Kähler, but I don't think you can do just easy Frobenius, Balarka.
 
hi @TedShifrin @MatheinBoulomenos
 
I am using Frobenius actually
 
Oh, hi @Ted @Balarka @EricSilva @Leaky
 
Hey @Mathein!
 
9:06 PM
22 hours ago, by Leaky Nun
@MatheinBoulomenos what's the point of category theory, seriously?
 
what's the point of your question?
 
Sup @MatheinBoulomenos
 
to ask you what category theory is actually about
limsup @EricSilva
 
Hey Mathein!
 
Hi @Daminark
 
9:07 PM
@Ted sent
not that you ever said explicitly that you wanted to see it
 
@MatheinBoulomenos yo
 
Hey @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
Interesting how you have to work in the rank condition, @Balarka.
 
lol, posting others' email-address
 
im going to delete it
besides, it's available online anyways
 
9:09 PM
It's in my profile. No biggie.
 
oh i sent to math.uga.edu
should it just be uga.edu?
 
Either works.
I just got it.
 
the rectangles are upside down accidentaly
 
Category theory gives us a framework and a language for thinking about a lot of different things (but not everything can be done categorically). It allows us to see that quite different things can be considered as examples of one unifying concept, for example gcds, a supremum in a poset and the product of topological spaces.
 
Lots of people have written such packages, Meow. But it's cool to have graphical stuff.
Upside-down rectangles sorta ruin it.
 
9:11 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos nice
 
Can you see/prove that using trapezoids makes the error noticeably better?
 
Category theory also allows generalizations that can be very fruitful. E.g. abelian categories which basically formalize what is nice about the category of modules over a rings, but it would be very difficult to work with abelian sheaves if we wouldn't have the formalism of abelian categories
 
yes but how does that work with the current definition
 
The first nontrivial use of category theory that I ever did was to use Yoneda lemma to prove Hopf degree theorem in TOP
 
Also category theory allows us to do some of the boring stuff that's always the same, such as product are commutative and associative up to isomorphism etc., once and for all so that when we work in a specific category, we can focus on the interesting stuff
 
9:12 PM
i dont doubt you, it's a much better approximation
 
It's an average of two Riemann sums, effectively, right? It's using the average of the left and right endpoints.
 
aoh yes
 
But the error is second order. Surprisingly, when you use parabolic approximations (Simpson's rule) the error become fourth order!!
 
@BalarkaSen spooked
 
You will find proofs in problems in Spivak, Meow. (I wrote these problems.)
 
9:13 PM
@EricSilva It's a clean proof, actually. I sent Daminark the .pdf I wrote it up on once
 
hi Eric.
 
The thing I'm spooked by is TOP lol
Yo @Ted
 
Ah yes
 
and then you can like use that polynomial error theorem thing
 
9:14 PM
weierstrass i think
or is that smth different
 
There are also substantial theorems in category theory that can be used to prove quite non-trivial results in various fields, e.g. Yoneda lemma, Freyd's adjoint functor theorem, Beck's monadicity theorem etc.
 
That's different.
See exercises at the end of chapter 19, Meow.
 
Does this answer your question? @Leaky
 
yes
 
Is there anyway to approximate a Lipschitz continuous function by $C^1$ functions?
 
9:18 PM
Lipschitz functions are almost everywhere C^1 so there's that
 
$C^1$ functions are dense even in $L^1$ functions.
 
Also that... a rather uninspiring approximation
 
I mean, you can always approximate a continuous function on a closed interval by polynomials. So the answer is yes, abstractly.
 
The point of Lipschitz functions is that they're basically just C^1 with better compactness properties
@BalarkaSen idk what this means
 
@BalarkaSen Are you sure about it? As far as I know it does only hold for nearly almost everywhere
 
9:20 PM
@Ted I think the right question to ask is if $f$ is Lipschitz, can you $f_n \to f$ with $f_n \in C^1$ such that $f_n = f$ on the complement of a union of balls around the singular locus of $f$, of decreasing radii as $n \to \infty$
 
C^1 a.e. doesn't obviously mean something
 
@EricSilva It's C^1 outside a measure zero set isn't it?
Or am I misremembering?
 
It's equal to a C^1 function on a set of arbitrarily small but positive measure
 
What about $g(x)$ being the indicator function of Fat cantor-set and $f(x)=\int_0^x g(y)dy$
 
All: This is Rademacher's Theorem to which Balarka refers.
 
9:21 PM
It's derivative is g(x) and not continuous isnt it
 
no, Eric, measure 0.
You're thinking Lusin or something from measure theory.
 
Oh, I want differentiable, not C^1
I misremembered totally
 
@TedShifrin I'm thinking of a corollary to Whitney extension
 
ohhh, right, diff, not C^1.
 
Rademacher Is differentiable, that wasn't my complaint
 
9:23 PM
My apologies.
 
Mhm
They're still basically C^1 though lol
 
puhhh, I just sent out a report, on which I claimed that lipschitz continuity is not sufficient for almost everywhere continuity of the derivative.
 
That's what my intuition is, and that's what misled me
 
The derivative only makes sense a.e.
 
Well my problem is, I have a Lipschitz function (unknown) and I have a method to reconstruct $C^1$ function. Is there any known approximation method of Lipschitz function by sequence of $C^1$ functions?
 
9:27 PM
I mean you can approximate any continuous function by a C^1 guy
 
@EricSilva Is there any numerical method doing that?
 
Convolution is the best way to understand this, but I'm not sure how quallenjäger wants his approximation to work.
 
Probably, beats me though
 
Ok I will check that. Thanks @EricSilva @TedShifrin
 
The way I always think of it is by solving the heat equation with you function as initial data and going forward a little bit @Ted
 
9:28 PM
1
Q: Mean-Value Theorem for set

quallenjägerSuppose $f:A\rightarrow \Bbb R $ is Lipschitz continuous and its derivative $Df$ is continuous on a closed subset $E$, $E\subset A$. Define $$\eta_\delta(a)=\text{sup}_{0<|x-a|<\delta \text{ and }x\in E}\frac{|f(x)-f(a)-Df(a)(x-a)|}{|x-a|}$$. I would like to proof the pointwise convergence for $\...

 
Not sure how to implement that in practice, Eric :)
 
Me neither lmao
I'm not sure how to write down a Lipschitz function that I can't obviously approximate either though
 
Any idea to this? Does Mean Value theorem holds for something like $[a,b] \cap E$ with $E$ being closed.
My problem is, I have something called signature of a path. Signature is a sequence of numbers, which describes a path uniquely. I have constructed a method to reconstruct a $C^1$ paths from its signature and I would like to generalize this method to lipschitz case. I thought, it might be possible to find a sequence of $C^1$ paths, which I can reconstruct, and then let it converge to the Lipschitz-Paths that I am looking for. I was wondering, if there is any numerical method doing it.
 
Do you really need Lipschitz paths rather than piecewise $C^1$ paths?
 
9:40 PM
Hello
 
Beats me.
 
Ok, thank you for your help anyways Ted.
 
I wish I could help but I know next to nothing about numerical stuff
 
Is there a definition for a derivative of a function $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb C$?
 
just take the derivative of real and imaginary parts
 
9:42 PM
Is this the definition?
 
@EricSilva You've helped me a lot already. Thanks
I am reading the book of Federer and Morgan as you suggested.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos There is actually an excercise in which I need to show that those are equivalent
 
They really sucks
:D
 
Lololol
 
Making things unnecessarily complicated.
 
9:44 PM
Just write down the usual definition but for the vector-valued function, @philmcole.
Heya @Antonios
 
Morgan is good but it's a book for getting a flavor of things rather than for learning the technical things
 
quick question actually, if you have a moment.
 
@quallenjäger I don't think it's unnecessary, some delicate questions require delicate and technical theory. It's a pain to learn but the principle of conservation of difficulty says that to do something hard you kind of have to struggle somewhere
 
Go ahead, Antonios.
 
Mostly just a terminology : in the book I'm reading, the vanishing set of some collection of polynomials in $k[X_1,\ldots, X_n]$ is called an affine algebraic set in $k^n$. It seems like some sources call this an affine algebraic variety.

In this book, an "affine algebraic variety" is a ringed space isomorphic as a ringed space to $(V,\mathcal{O}_V)$, where $V$ is an affine algebraic set, and $\mathcal{O}_V$ is the sheaf of regular functions on $V$.

I'm just wondering if there's any reason people opt for one way or the other.
 
Thanks, I'll try it @MatheinBoulomenos and @TedShifrin
 
Ordinarily a pedantic person thinks of a variety as a set of points together with a structure sheaf (that's the ringed space stuff).
 
@Antonios-AlexandrosRobotis the first is easier to define, but it has not structure
 
gotcha, so it's just a pedantic thing
 
9:49 PM
Like you can say the unit sphere is a manifold ... but you've just described its set of points. It's taken for granted that it has some obvious smooth structure inherent from its embedding.
 
A variety is an $\infty$-topos
 
@EricSilva Well, you are right. The theory in there is very generalized.
 
yeah I figured as much, I think hartshorne defines the vanishing set as a variety, and I was viewing that as the "absolute truth" lol.
Thanks @TedShifrin @MatheinBoulomenos
 
Well, in chapter 1 he is giving examples and motivations. Just wait for chapters 2 and 3 !!
 
I think there's more to this than pedantry actually. The first definition assumes that you have already embedded your affine algebraic variety into some affine space. This is like defining a manifold as a subset of $\Bbb R^n$. The second defintion just assumes "there exists an isomorphism", so we haven't chosen an embedding yet
 
9:52 PM
@TedShifrin For now I'm staying mostly away from hartshorne, but I think he does a nice job defining sheaves in the beginning of II. The definition of presheaves as a functor is nice.
@MatheinBoulomenos ah okay, so it's kinda like the difference between the embedded approach to manifolds versus the more "intrinsic one" whatever that means
 
@MatheinBoulomenos I guess the first is only pedantry once you know better but a priori it might not be
Which I guess is important
 
Of course the way I think about affine algebraic varieties is as an object in the opposite category of finitely generated reduced $k$-algebras :P (jk)
 
I think about rings as affine k-algebras
beat drops
 
lol well thanks all, time to get back to readin.'
 
9:59 PM
hi @TedShifrin
 

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