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10:01
@Secret there is no contradiction
0:37 there is no conflict
@AkivaWeinberger hi
Uh, you cannot have an odd number equal to an even number?
@Secret the un-trigonometric steps are wrong
$\cos(\pi-be)=\cos(a)$ implies $\pi-be=a+2n\pi$ or $\pi-be=-a+2n\pi$
$\sin(-be)=\sin(a)$ implies $-be=a+2m\pi$ or $-be=-a+(2m+1)\pi$
actually, you can directly from $e^{bi(\pi+e)}=e^{ia}$ read out $b(\pi+e) = a+2n\pi$
which to my mind is rather pointless
10:40
Yeah I just rechecked, the "or" cases will allow the attempted contradiction to fail and remain consistent.
Anyway, the reason that I suddenly want to check the irrationality of $\pi + e$ is because if this is true, then what I previously said about the cosets of $\Bbb{R}/\Bbb{Q}$ not overlapping for any two irrational generating element will become false
@Secret it is an open problem
(yes, we still haven't determined if $\pi+e$ is rational)
@Secret well one only has to look for $\sqrt2+\Bbb Q$ and $(\sqrt2+1)+\Bbb Q$.
That example of $\sqrt{2}$ and $\sqrt{2}+1$ should have been ruled out in my previosu description, though I don't know how to describe that
you can't
perhaps, all irrationals that don't differ by an integer or rational "in some obvious manner"
but then $\pi + e$ pose difficulties
If $a$ and $b$ are irrational, then either $a+b$ or $a-b$ is irrational. That's all you can say.
10:44
@ACuriousMind right
@Secret remember: there are uncountably many irrationals, but only countably many which you can describe
yeah, we don't have the luxury of a computer with countably infinite strings
@AkivaWeinberger hmm?
you mean algebraic certainly
mlerrp
Oh wait
@LeakyNun a and b are letters of the alphabet, lol.
10:47
@Jasper go back to your iceberg
Yeah, sorry
@LeakyNun Hey, you flying off this week right?
If $a$ and $b$ are both transcendental, then $a+b$ and $ab$ can't both be algebraic
@Jasper tomorrow
is what I meant
10:48
@AkivaWeinberger right
It is too early in the morning for me, bye for a bit
What? So many (removed)
I made a stupid mistake
So I cleansed it with fire
$\pi e =\frac{a}{b} \implies \ln \pi = \ln a - \ln b$ gets nowhere
@Secret it's an open problem
if it can be solved by you (or me or anyone else in this room), it would have been solved a decade ago
3
10:49
I know it is open, but I don't know why (in terms of complexity or other notions) it remains open
In fact, is it possible that the solution to it is fundementally undecidable?
@Secret we've discussed this before
Sep 16 at 18:20, by Leaky Nun
plot twist in mathematics: what if it turns out that $e+\pi \in \Bbb Q$ is independent of ZFC?
Read from here
I think the statement "$e+\pi$ algebraic" is equivalent to some statement of the form $\exists n,\phi(n)$ in PA, where each $\phi(n)$ is decidable (aka either true or false)
Sep 16 at 18:29, by Daminark
There's nothing else to say. If it is independent, well it's true and its negation is false. So not independent
I don't know enough logic to say if that implies the whole thing is decidable
Hm, I guess it isn't necessarily
Sep 16 at 18:22, by Semiclassical
I find it hard to be anything but childish when it comes to questions about $e+\pi$ tbh
10:53
But it does mean it's definitely either true or false regardless of whether or not ZFC can prove anything about it
since PA has a canonical model
Actually, given the actual thing that forced me to revisit that topic today, knowing the irrationality or not of $\pi + e$ has an importance outside of number theory: It gives us information on the structure of the cosets in $\Bbb{R}/\Bbb{Q}$
You could definitely ask on Math SE if it's possible for it to be independent. I feel like there might be some metamathematical theorems that are relevent.
good luck constructing $e$ in PA @AkivaWeinberger
You can't construct $e$ itself but you can construct relevant stuff
@AkivaWeinberger well you can
10:55
Like, you can define a function in PA equivalent to "$a<eb$"
the same way you can define a function in PA equivalent to $a<\sqrt2b$
(it's simply $a^2<2b^2$)
(but clearly for $e$ it would be more complicated)
5
Q: Constructing the reals from the integers

José Carlos SantosA map $f\colon\mathbb{Z}\longrightarrow\mathbb Z$ is called a quasi-homomorphism if the set$$\{f(m+n)-f(m)-f(n)\,|\,m,n\in\mathbb{Z}\}$$is bounded. Let $R$ be the set of these functions. Let's consider the binary relation $\sim$ in $R$ defined by$$f_1\sim f_2\iff\{f_1(n)-f_2(n)\,|\,n\in\mathbb{Z}...

Relevant
Oh, cool
That's a cool way to go about it
Instead of reals ($r$), you think about linear maps $x\mapsto xr$
but since those can't exist exactly in $\Bbb N\to\Bbb N$, we think about things that are approximately linear maps
That's a really cool idea
The following is a list of significant formulae involving the mathematical constant π. The list contains only formulae whose significance is established either in the article on the formula itself, the article Pi, or the article Approximations of π. == Euclidean geometry == π = C / d {\displaystyle \pi =C/d} where C is the circumference of a circle, d is the diameter. A = π r 2 {...
In any case, by asking if $e+\pi$ is algebraic, you're asking if a certain function is in a certain countable collection of functions
Is now tempted to use the Wallis product, and some product representation of $e$ and see if the resulting closed form of $\pi e$ can be computed exactly
11:00
I heard somewhere, incidentally, that ZF-C and ZFC agree on all arithmetic statements
That is, the presence or absence of choice can't affect any arithmetic statements
(That includes statements about Turing machines, since those can be framed in PA, which is also interesting)
@AkivaWeinberger yes
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_representations_of_e
and.... most of them are so complicated
wait a minute
@AkivaWeinberger $x \mapsto \lfloor xr \rfloor$
Right
Those are approximately linear maps, and would serve as canonical representatives of each class
Okay, so if a function like $f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{x}\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{x}-\frac{1}{2}\right)$ is undefined at $x=0$. I can simply rewrite it as $f_0(x)=\frac{-1}{2\left(1+\sqrt{1+x}\right)^2}$. Literally $f_0=f$ so $f$ is both defined and undefined at $x=0$ depending on who you ask?
11:05
@FuzzyPixelz They don't have the same domain, so they're not the same function
$f$ has domain $[-1,0)\cup(0,\infty)$ and $f_0$ has domain $[-1,\infty)$ (I think)
Haha that was both fast and convincing, thanks @AkivaWeinberger
However, yes, where they're both defined, they're equal
If you restrict $f_0$ onto $f$'s domain (i.e. delete $0$ from the domain), then you get $f$.
Yes, I forgot that the domain takes part in the definition of a function, silly me.
11:11
@FuzzyPixelz there's a difference between high school and uni
in high school, you do everything informally, and the domain comes from the function definition (and every function is a real function)
in uni, you define the domain first, and functions can be between any sets
The following is expected to lead to nowhere:
$\pi + e = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{k+1}k!^2}{(2k+1)!} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k!} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{k+1}k!^2}{(2k+1)!}+\frac{1}{(2k+1)!} - \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2k)!}$
bleh, back to set theory
We have seen that, I know that we can define a function as a transformation or mapping between two sets. However all that knowledge was abolished quickly once we started Calculus (Limits and continuity now), so yes you're right.
@LeakyNun
Also, I haven't double-checked your algebra, so I'm just trusting you when you say that they're equal (where both defined)
I double-checked using Desmos @AkivaWeinberger thanks again !
@FuzzyPixelz it is a transformation between two sets
11:17
@FuzzyPixelz Yeah people tend to focus on real functions for calc and other physics-like stuffs
This distinction comes up once again if you ever deal with complex functions
as $\Bbb R\to\Bbb R:x\mapsto x^2$ and $\Bbb C\to\Bbb C:x\mapsto x^2$ are fairly different things
@LeakyNun shrug Of course, why wouldn't high school math be as formal as it should, I mean it's not asking so much.
@FuzzyPixelz let’s learn ZF in high school :p
what are we doing
learning ZF in high school
keep up the good work
11:21
@LeakyNun I'm all in, replace Calculus with ZF and you get a whole generation of theoretical scientists and a much larger majority of people dropping out of school for mysterious reasons, I wouldn't mind that though.
No, you won't get that
Wait quick question @BalarkaSen
@BalarkaSen An overthrowed government ?
Calculus is a fundamental stepping stone of mathematics (and science in general). Axiomatic set theory is a specialized branch of mathematics that is absolutely not an absolute essential.
Zed-Ef or Zee-Ef?
11:23
I would rather replace pi with 3.2
@Akiva I spell it as Zed-Ef-Cee
Well, if you have ZFC
@AkivaWeinberger same here
I have a great meme idea now.
I'm American, so I've always been reading your comments as "Zee-Ef-Cee"
I've also been reading them with an American accent 'cause I guess my "internal reading voice" has an American accent if that makes any sense
11:25
@BalarkaSen Of course, a whole generation of people producing useless theories.
In any case, it's weird that the alphabet song doesn't rhyme for you guys
@BalarkaSen tell us
@AkivaWeinberger it does
@LeakyNun You know how Jake Paul and Team 10 wears those "OFC" shirts? Ohio Fried Chicken?
"A B C D E F Gee / H I J K LMNO Pee / Q R S, T U Vee / W X, Y and Zed"
To be continued
11:26
That final rhyme fails
I say zee there
$\int_{\Bbb{R}}e^{-x^2}dx = \sqrt{\pi}$
$e^{\frac{1}{2}}\int_{\Bbb{R}}e^{-x^2}dx = \int_{\Bbb{R}}e^{-x^2+\frac{1}{2}}dx$ computing...
nope, it just returns what we put it, bleh
@BalarkaSen and then?
If $f$ is a continuous function on an interval $[a,b]$ such that $f(a)f(b)\lt 0$, then there is at least a $c\in (a,b)$ such that $f(c)=0$
11:35
That follows from the intermediate value theorem
sniped!
I'm wondering if there are any alternative ways of writing that,
Why not this:
there isn’t
ivt is the path
ivt is the light
If $f$ is a continuous function on an interval $[a,b]$ such that $f(a)f(b)\le 0$, then there is at least a $c\in [a,b]$ such that $f(c)=0$
ivt is the way
11:37
I'm mean like.. Why can't we have $f(a)=0$ or $f(b)=0$ @LeakyNun
or else fa fb would equal 0
Btw, I found it amazing that google search give no examples of improper integrals that evaluates to e
and there are tons of integrals that give $\pi$ containing expressions
Why not ! It would give a solution to $f(x)=0$ anyway.
well I didn’t see that you turned < into <=
but right it would just be a or b
11:55
@FuzzyPixelz This is also true
and equivalent to IVT
The theorem statement is ambiguous, we can't know if $0\in [f(a),f(b)]$ or $0\in (f(a),f(b))$ @AkivaWeinberger
Corrected, my bad
If $f(a)f(b)\ne0$ then clearly $c\ne a,b$ so $c\in(a,b)$, and otherwise if $f(a)f(b)=0$ then one of $c=a$ or $c=b$ is true
Oh, you edited it to something slightly different than what I thought you were gonna edit it to
Still, just break it into cases on whether or not $f(a)f(b)=0$
In the end, what matters for the IVT is that continuous functions can't go from negative to positive (or vice versa) without crossing 0
Thanks, my teacher didn't approve and basically told me to accept the statement as we wrote it in class... ._.
@FuzzyPixelz state the theorem
The problem isn't the theorem, because it allows for both of the statements I mentioned earlier @LeakyNun
12:04
@FuzzyPixelz I want to see how the theorem is stated
@FuzzyPixelz @_@
For every $\lambda$ between $f(a)$ and $f(b)$, there is at least a number $c$ between $a$ and $b$ such that $f(c)=\lambda$ @LeakyNun
I kindly refer you to $f(x)=1-x^2$ where $f(-1)=f(1)=0$ yet $f(x) \ne 0$ for $-1<x<1$ :P
Of course we assume that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$
Unrelated mumble: Using (forgot theorem name, but likely related to lindlemann weistrass) given $a$ a transcendental and $n$ an integer $> 0$, then $\{a^n\}_{n\in\Bbb{N}}$ is algebraically independent.

This means given any polynomial $P(x)=\sum_{k=0}^m b_kx^k$, with algebraic coefficients, since each $b_kx^k$ must be transcendental, the consequence of these summands being algebraically independent means that $P(a)$ is not only nonzero, but always transcendental.

(Need to figure out how to prove this properly). This means, $P(\Bbb{R})$ actually partition the reals nicely into transcendenta
@Secret it certainly isn't
12:11
@LeakyNun I kindly accept your reference sir, and I apologize for my terrible comprehension and my unfortunate tendency to ask silly questions.
O wait, forgot that algebraic times transendental will give another transendental very different from the one starting with, thus we are bumping into that $\pi e$ issue again, my bad.
But I can't help myself shrug literally.
@Secret I was referring to the first paragraph
But what about rational coefficients polynomials, that should close right since e.g. $pe^2+qe$ for $p,q$ rational can never yield an algebraic number?
@Secret that's linearly independent
12:14
So for $P$ with rational coefficients. If $a$ is transcendental, then $P(a)$ must be transendental since the powers of $a$ are (forgot) linearly independent?
@Secret if $P(a)$ were algebraic, then $a$ would be algebraic
let $f(P(a))=0$ where $f$ is a polynomial
Then $f \circ P$ is a polynomial where $a$ is a root
i.e. $(f \circ P)(a)=0$
so $a$ is algebraic, contradiction
Don't you think that referring to "functions", one of the most important concepts in all of maths as $f$, $g$ and $h$ is a lack of creativity ?
Perhaps a little boring over time ?
@FuzzyPixelz what, do you want me to write $\Bbb F$?
$\varphi$?
$\eta$
Yes sir ! By the way, my message wasn't intended to be a reply to yours.
Hmm, so that would mean if $a$ is transcendental and $P$ has rational coefficients, then $P(a)$ has to be transcendental. So that means the algrebraic and transendental numbers are separatedlly closed under the action of the set of all rational polynomials.

That is if $P(a)$ is algebraic, then $a$ is algebraic
and if $P(a)$ is transcendental, then $a$ must be transendental.
I am not sure if this is interesting

But as you said, my claim about $Q(a)$ transcendental -> $a$ transcendental would not hold for $Q$ with algebraic coefficients
12:28
for all non-zero polynomials $P$ with algebraic coefficients, $a$ is algebraic iff $P(a)$ is algebraic.
when did I say that it would not hold?
17 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@Secret I was referring to the first paragraph
meh nvm, read that wrong
Can anyone help me out this one?
@IşıkKaplan <BDC = 45, <ADC = 135, use law of sines to find CD, then law of cosines to find BC
12:29
But anyway, at least transcendentals under polynomial maps can never jump to algebraic numbers and vise versa
I usually don't ask this kind of things but this, I'm apparently missing something, it has been one hour
DC is 8sqrt3-8
So given the reals, the action of the polynomials over the reals will give two cosets, the algebraic numbers and the transcendentals
@IşıkKaplan then use law of cosines on BCD
But either I am completely wrong or the choices are wrong
(actually, we might not call these cosets as polynomials are not always invertible)
12:31
@Secret they do have additive inverses
polynomials over a field form a ring
If it is not a problem for you can you try to solve it for couple minutes?
so I guess the algebraic and transcendentals in the polynomial ring form two ideals that partition the reals
@IşıkKaplan DC is 8sqrt2
As I said I've been trying to solve this for an hour and I'm not exaggerating.
how did you get 8sqrt3-8?
12:33
Wait let me draw it
I know this is completely wrong but I can not see it, is it possible I've become retarded in the last couple hours?
The last line is not y^2 but y.
you most certainly didn't calculate CD.
I already gave you a solution @IşıkKaplan
you're complicating everything
12:49
I know and thanks again for the solution but I still don't understand if I'm making a mathematical error or if my steps are faulty.
@IşıkKaplan may I repeat, that you didn't find CD
that you were wrong to claim that you found DC=8sqrt3-8
because x isn't DC
y^2 = (2x)^2 + (2x)^2 - 2(2x)(2x)cos(150)
y^2 = 2(16sqrt3-16)^2 [1-cos(150)]
y^2 = 256(sqrt3-1)^2 [2+sqrt3]
y^2 = 128(sqrt3-1)^2 [4+2sqrt3]
y^2 = 128(sqrt3-1)^2 [1+sqrt3]^2
y^2 = 128(3-1)^2
y^2 = 512
y = 8sqrt2
I have no idea what you're doing in your second paragraph
@IşıkKaplan
13:07
Thank you so much for the step by step solutions, I am apparently having a brain fart, I'm going to try to solve it again this night.
But again, thank you so much!
@FuzzyPixelz Did the teacher actually write it with $“f(a)f(b)<0”$?
That's weird. It's more common to see the (slightly less general but more intuitive) formulation $“f(a)>0$ and $f(b)<0”$.
hi all.. here is a puzzle....if Alice and Bob each have a bit string of length n, how much data (in bits) does Alice have to send Bob so that Bob can compute the Hamming distance between the two strings mod 4 ?
@Lembik does Alice know Bob's string?
13:22
@LeakyNun no
otherwise it's rather easy :)
13:39
Could someone of you take a look at my question about the exterior product: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2446994/… ?
@Lembik I know how to compute the Hamming distance between two strings but to compute it "mod 4"?? What does that mean?
I know what "mod 4" means but don't know what it means with this usage
A number is "0 mod 4" if it's a multiple of 4, it's "1 mod 4" if it's 1 more than a multiple of 4, etc
Bob just needs to know how far above the closest multiple of four it is
OH, hamming distance mod 4, just read it wrong
I have to decide what math I want to do now
What are the options?
13:53
study inter-universal Teichmüller theory
And verify the proof of the abc-conjecture, thanks :)
no pls stop
just because i am a memer, you don't have to meme at me
i am on a srs crisis now
Learn measure theory then help me with my doubt
@Alessandro First options are Riemann surfaces, ODEs, then Riemannian geometry perhaps, or revisiting covering space theory
@AkivaWeinberger @Lembik I can't see it. Currently stuck at sending n bits... at least
Riemann surfaces are pretty cool.
Or do Riemannian geometry like it was taught at my uni: no vector bundles and differential forms :P
13:57
@JesterTran it just means x mod 4 if x is the Hamming distance
@JesterTran so Bob has to output 0,1,2 or 3
@Lembik yeah, my lower bound is n bits. I'm stuck
@JesterTran if you can prove a lower bound of n that is interesting
@AlessandroCodenotti what doubt?
The one from yesterday
@Tasty I am currently going through a block about a section on Forster
13:59
Actually I think I know how to solve it, but I need to check the details
@Lembik I must be misinterpreting the question then. If Alice sends n bits of information (which is her bit string), then Bob knows both strings and easily finds the Hamming D
I guess I could do Riemannian
yeah I am not doing bundle geometry or moving frames
17 hours ago, by Alessandro Codenotti
So, suppose $f:\Omega\to\Bbb R$ is a function, with $\Omega\subseteq\Bbb R^n$ open and connected (we can also take $\Omega=\Bbb R^n$ if it's easier) and that $\int_{B_r(x)}f(y)\mathrm{d}y=0$ for all balls $B_r(x)$ contained in $\Omega$
17 hours ago, by Alessandro Codenotti
Without assuming continuity must it be $0$ almost everywhere?
@AlessandroCodenotti this one?
@JesterTran right..that's an upper bound
@JesterTran we want a lower bound
14:04
@Lembik so both upper and lower bound, so has to be $n$ lol. At least I know that I understand the question now
hello
@JesterTran :)
If H has index 2 in G, then H is normal in G. Is the converse also true?
if not, any counterexamples?
@NV-US of course not
there are many normal subgroups with index way bigger than 2
just pick any abelian group
@NV-US Are all subgroups of $\Bbb Z$ all of index $2$? Surely they're all normal so...
14:07
every subgp of abelian is normal, hence follows, ty
what about non abelian?
@LeakyNun
@LeakyNun I swear you're a freshman/sophomore in pure mathematics. I met you in some programming chat and also did not see you this active in the mathematics chat. You previously had some dark coloured display picture
@AlessandroCodenotti how would you describe the elements in $\varepsilon_0$ to someone without any knowledge of ordinal?
@JesterTran hmm?
@AlessandroCodenotti I mean the elements inside
e.g. $\omega^\omega$ contains the polynomials with natural number coefficients
any example in a non abelian group??
14:09
@NV-US just pick a group large enough
It's probably easier to just explain what ordinals are
@NV-US {1,-1} is normal in Q8
the quaternion group of order 8
@AlessandroCodenotti hmm
ty
@LeakyNun I certainly remember having a few chats with you here or in codegolf. Trying to recall what you helped me with
@JesterTran I do am active on both sites
and the fact that I'm a freshman in pure mathematics is clearly written in my bio :P
however I never had some dark coloured display picture
14:17
chat all buggy
I didn't check as to test my memory. I wish I had zoomed in on your old display picture :(
@JesterTran oh, that one
it's dark red
brown
ahh ok haha
i am trying to prove the following corollary let u and v be distinct vertices in a non separable graph G. if H obtained by adding a new vertex w and jioning w to u and v then H is nonseprable.
i meant i know there are two ID paths to u and v from any vertex.
i then wanted to follow across the edge from u to w then the from w to v
and claim it was a cycle
but i cant
because i dont know that the the thwo paths are internally disjiont
15:22
So for my complex analysis homework, I was tasked with defining a function holomorphic except at 6 points. I used $\dfrac 1 {1-z^6}$ because there was no requirement that the function be everywhere continuous. But if I wanted to force continuity everywhere, how would I go about the problem?
15:40
Try doing it with 1 point
Wait, you want a holomorphic function which is continuous everywhere but holomorphic everywhere except one point? That can't happen?
why not?
That point is a removable singularity, isn't it?
what about holomorphic everywhere except several points?
maybe?
15:50
holomorphic except at finitely many points is easy enough.
the issue is the continuity bit
It can't happen
You'd need something that is continuous everywhere, but not differentiable (or such that Cauchy-Riemann don't hold)
Riemann's removable singularity theorem extends it over those points holomorphically
But that would again require discontinuous derivatives and such
hmm okay
15:51
I must be tired. I'm forgetting where $f(z)=\sqrt{z}$ would land in this classification.
since $f(z)\to 0$ as $z\to 0$, though $f'(z)$ isn't well-defined as $z\to 0$.
square root of z is not even a well defined function on C
just choose a branch?
if you choose a branch, it's not continuous along the branch
15:52
ah
it's only continuous across the branch if you're working on the branched cover
choosing a branch means you choose a well-defined lift over C minus an axis
minus half an axis
in which case it's not really a function on C anymore
it is if you make the domain closed on one side and open on the other?
15:53
how does that help?
with continuity, I mean.
I guess it doesnt
@BalarkaSen I was trying to get him to work it out by himself!
@Alessandro Oops!
well I didn't learn Riemann's removable singularity theorem yet :P
15:54
hmm
complex analysis is so interesting, I just need to make sure I know my foundations well enough
last class we did series and power series, but we didn't yet prove that:
At the same time, how does one interpret that for $\sqrt{z}$ if you think of that as a function on the branched cover?
$f$ holormophic iff $f$ = its power series
^ in a given nbhd
which i read online
ah
15:56
@Semiclassical Interpret which?
i'm not awake, so I'm probably not thinking clearly. But:
I think over the branched cover the function is just $z$.
The lift of the function along $\Bbb C \to \Bbb C$, $z\mapsto z^2$, I mean
hmm
in which case you'd not even have a singularity.
Right.
but that seems odd, since while $\sqrt{z}\to 0$ was well-defined the first derivative wasn't continuous at zero.
15:59
oh, this is interesting
I'd be careful about taking anything at zero because the branched cover is, by definition, not biholomorphic near that.
The thing is if you baleet 0
so you get
I asked if $\lim$ can be replaced with $\lim \sup$ in the ratio and root test?

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