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12:07 AM
Last night dream:
Let $L$ be a linear operator expressed in a vector space with a countable basis set and $a$ be a convergent countable sequence. Then $L$ has the following property:
$$\exists a, La=\lambda a$$
where $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n = \lambda$
 
You mean a Schauder basis in particular, right?
Oh wait ofc
Sorry
But yeah I'm not clear what $a$ is here, do you mean $\lim a_n = a$ and there exists an eigenvector $b$?
 
$a$ is a convergent sequence which is an eigenvector of $L$, which has the property where its eigenvalue is the infinite sum of all its terms
 
Oh so the vector space is a sequence space?
 
yup
 
12:28 AM
Rarely do I recall the maths in dreams exactly and that it at least does not sounds gibberish
 
Ah okay I'm following now
And fair
 
I have not learnt functional analysis yet, thus further investigation of it has to be done later
But my gut feeling is that that equation might restrict the possible Ls alot due to the eigenvalue depends on all terms in the eigenvector
 
Actually in thinking about the Hamel vs Schauder basis thing I've realized you can prove that a Banach space cannot have a countable basis via BCT
It's really nifty, so you can show that a proper subspace of a normed space has empty interior
Because if you take a ball $B(x,r) \subset S$ (the subspace), then note that for any $z\in V$, you have $x + \frac{r}{2\|z\|}z \in S$
But then $z$ is a scalar multiple of that vector minus $x$, so $z\in S$
Now if you have a Banach space, assume $\{x_n\}$ form a Hamel basis
Then $\textrm{Span}(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = X_n$
Each $X_n$ is closed and has empty interior
But then their union can't be everything by BCT
Which is fun
 
12:54 AM
@Daminark Next time, in your exam, write nifty as well, lol.
 
"Yo Professor [REDACTED] check out this sick lemma"
I'm not sure which of the two fits better
 
lmao
I have a joke, so listen.
You can only lmao once in your life, because once you do it, you no longer have an ass.
 
Heh
 
@LeakyNun I seriously doubt the authenticity of that news.
@Daminark What would happen if you said 'Yo Professor, you are sick!' LOL
 
Grrr, this proof is immune to visualisation...
hmm...
The subspace $S$ is spanned by any $B(x,r) \subset S \subset V$ ?
thus it has no choice but to be V itself?
Hmm...
How about this:
In a normed space, $z \in V$ can always be rescaled because it can be converted into a unit vector. This result in any $z$ to lie within some $S$ where $B(x,r) \subset S$ for any $B \subset V$. Since we can start with picking a $z \in V -S$, it then follows that $V-S$ is empty
 
1:19 AM
I mean the finite dimensional picture is that a ball "pokes out" into each dimension
 
1:32 AM
Another thing I noticed is that any $z \in V$ will end up be $\in S$, thus $S$ cannot be proper if it contains balls
@Daminark Btw, since the above theorem holds for any normed space, moving back to $\Bbb{R}^3$ with the eucledian norm, and picking a plane passing through the origin (thus a 2 dimensional subspace) does it mean that every point on this plane is the boundary in the topological sense?
 
1:54 AM
Yup
 
Ah, now it makes sense, because back in the times I am a layman (or at least back in linear algebra 1st year undergrad), all the points inside the plane will be intuitively like the interior to me
 
2:06 AM
Yeah, the trick is what dimensional ball
 
2:24 AM
Let $X = \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb{N}}X_n$, where $X_n$ is defined as above the span of the hamel basis. Since by BCT $X \subset V$, is there a name for the space $V-X$?
One thing I am interested is how going from countable to uncountable will allow the space to reach $V-X$
 
2:38 AM
hmm...
Actually, suppose I have a set of 2-balls in $\Bbb{R}^3$
then it logically follows that if I want the union of all 2-balls to be $\Bbb{R}^3$ itself, I will need uncountably many of them?
But maybe the analogy is not correct, as a countable union of finite sets is countable
 
Closed 2-balls, yeah, by BCT
 
I am trying to understand the hamel basis in countable normed space. Since in such space, each vector has countably many components, then since a countable union of finite dimensional sets is countable, then it may seemed that countably many suitably chosen balls that spans 2 or 3 dimensions each should be able to fill in the whole space, but it does not as the property that the only subspace that has an interior is the whole space itself, and thus by BCT they cannot union to fill in the whole
space
So the question is then what do the missing points in $V-X$ look like, such that it takes uncountably many balls to reach them
 
When you're in a Banach space, I dunno if you wanna think about components
Unless you're specifically looking at a sequence space
 
2:55 AM
sequence spaces $\ell^p$ ($\in \Bbb{N} \cup \{\infty\}$) seemed to be the most simple and one of the most ubiquitous example of a countable banach space, thus I think we can start with that as an example
 
Define "countable" Banach space
One with a Schauder basis?
 
Yeah I think so, as otherwise we cannot talk about each component of the vectors I think?
I think what I have in mind is the following:
In sequence space, we can index each element of the sequence with the natural numbers, thus each sequence has coutably many elements
I think I am trying to generalise that to some kind of formal sequence which is any countable set and these countable sets form a normed vector space
 
Okay, so one way of saying it is a complete normed subspace of R^(infinity)
 
yeah that sounds right
 
I mean the best thing is to explicitly say you're working in l^p
 
3:00 AM
right, so that means sequence space is the word I am looking for
 
Other Banach spaces with a Schauder basis have a coordinatization of the similar sort but thinking about linear operators through that tends to be clunky
I guess unless you're in L^p and doing Fourier but I dunno about that so I'll refrain from opening that can of worms
 
tahc ih.
@Jasper it's an urban legend lol
 
Oy
 
Right, so the question narrows down to that we knew the hamel basis of a sequence space is also uncountable based on the BCT proof we just went through. In order to understand how so in a more "geometric" point of view, I need to know what the points $\ell^p -X$ look like
The following is my initial thought on how I think I can span this space with countably many finite dimensional balls that seemed make sense, but is wrong because it does not agree with the BCT proof
Let $\{X_n\}$ be a collection of finite dimensional subspaces of $\ell^p$ indexed by the natural numbers
The components of each $a\in \ell^p$ can likewise be given as $a_i$ for $i \in \Bbb{N}$
Now construct $\{X_n\}$ as follows:
 
@Secret use linear algebra to find $\displaystyle \int x^{10} \ln x \ \mathrm dx$ :P
 
3:10 AM
For $e_i$ basis vectors in each $X_n$:
Let $X_1 = \text{span}(e_1,e_2,e_3)$
Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_4,e_5,e_6)$
Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_7,e_8,e_9)$
...
Let $X_2 = \text{span}(e_n,e_{n+1},e_{n+2}), n \in \Bbb{N}$
Thus $X = \bigcup_{n\in \Bbb{N}} X_n$
Yet by BCT, $X \subset \ell^p$, therefore what do the missing elements look like?
 
2
Q: Hahn-Banach From Systems of Linear Equations

bolbteppaIn this paper on the history of functional analysis, the author mentions the following example of an infinite system of linear equations in an infinite number of variables $c_i = A_{ij} x_j$: \begin{align*} \begin{array}{ccccccccc} 1 & = & x_1 & + & x_2 & + & x_3 & + & \dots \\ 1 & = & & &...

Who wouldn't find it interesting
 
3:31 AM
Well I guess a probably naive comment of the above MSE is that: In the countable case is it even possible to reach the equation $x_{something}=1$
as without that, there is no way to know whether the equation is consistent
@LeakyNun If this is something related to minimal polynomials, then I have no idea
 
@Secret nothing with minimal polynomials
 
I only know that by IBP it equals to $\frac{x^{11}}{11}\ln x - \frac{x^{11}}{121}+C$
 
Not using IBP is the point
 
what kind of linear algebra do I need, it does not look very linear algebra like (other than $\int$ is a linear operator, but that's functional analysis)?
 
@Secret well use the fact that $\displaystyle \int$ is a linear operator :P
 
3:57 AM
Hmm... if the question is $\int P(x)dx$ where $P(x)$ is a polynomial, then it is easy to see that $\int$ will have a finite matrix representation thus it can be multiplied to the matrix representation of $P(x)$ to solve for its integral.

So that means, we need some finite dimensional vector space that has $x \ln x$ as an element
and take its basis
Alternately, we can always use taylor series on $\ln x$ and solve it as a power series, but that's cheating because it is technically speaking an approximation
 
@Secret It's technically speaking not an approximation
@Secret right, so you need 24 dimensions:P
 
I don't really know how one can systematically find the finite linear combination of a function
if the basis or set of vectors is not given
$\{1,x,x^2,x^3,x^4,x^5,x^6,x^7,x^8,x^9,x^{10},ln x,noidea\}$
 
I already said 24 dimensions
 
$\frac{d}{dx}x^{10} \ln x = 10x^9 \ln x + \frac{x^{10}}{x}$
I have no idea how you derive 24
 
because $x^9 \ln x$ is not in your vector space
 
4:16 AM
$\{1,x,x^2,x^3,x,x^5,x^6,x^7,x^8,x^9,x^{10},x^{11},\ln x, x\ln x\ln x,x^2\ln x,x^3\ln x,x^4\ln x,x^5\ln x,x^6\ln x,x^7\ln x,x^8\ln x,x^9\ln x,x^{10}\ln x,x^{11}\ln x\}$

sounds really ad hoc...
 
bingo
 
hmm...
$$\int f(x) dx$$
Let $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$
If $g(x)$ is a polynomial, then:
$\int^{(k)} g(x) dx$ is a polynomial for any $k \in \Bbb{N}$
If $g(x) = \ln x$, then:
$\int \ln x dx= x\ln x -x$
$\int^{(2)} \ln x dx = P(x) \ln x +Q(x)$
...
$\int^{(k)} \ln x dx$ is a linear combination of a polynomial times a ln x + a polynomial
That means...:
given a function $h(x) \in S$
If $$\int^{(k)} h(x) dx \in S, \forall k \in \Bbb{N}$$
and $g(x) \in S$ , then $\int g(x) dx$ can be solved via matrix representation of $\int$
where $|S| < \infty$
In symbolic computation (or computer algebra), at the intersection of mathematics and computer science, the Risch algorithm is an algorithm for indefinite integration. It is used in some computer algebra systems to find antiderivatives. It is named after the American mathematician Robert Henry Risch, a specialist in computer algebra who developed it in 1968. The algorithm transforms the problem of integration into a problem in algebra. It is based on the form of the function being integrated and on methods for integrating rational functions, radicals, logarithms, and exponential functions. Risch...
O wait, that might be the generalisation of the Rische algorithm I am seeking for
 
4:39 AM
maybe try to solve it using power series lol
 
Hello
Leaky :D
 
hi
 
well I got some homework assigments
I need some help with
:D
If you are free ofc =p
 
ok
 
Btw leaky are you a proffesor of math ?
3
 
4:42 AM
see my profile
 
oh :D
whats imperical
imprial Ä
imperial college* i mean lol
 
imperial college london
 
Is that like very good uni?
 
lol
 
sorry ><
Lets focus on problems =p
all righty , most of the problems has something to do with isomorphism
 
4:44 AM
@KasmirKhaan Lol, that's what I asked him some days ago
 
the thing is we did not do any theorem about that
@Abcd haha same questions ? ><
 
go on
 
@KasmirKhaan Yes exactly same question xD
 
Ehm so without having the theorems for isomorphims
How to prove the groups are the same
my ideas are
group table
if we they are the same, like structure is the same , we can say they are isomorphic, up to relabling of the elements
 
visualize the group
 
4:46 AM
is that considered a proof?
 
no, it helps your intuition
 
but I can't find a function phi
such that f(xy) = f(x)f(y)
 
what are the groups?
 
S_3 and GL_2(Z/2)
I found the 1-1 map
I can associate each element from one group to the other
checked it works
 
no, you don't find a 1-1 map
 
4:48 AM
i meant
1-1 correspondance
 
that's hardly how you do this kind of problems
 
Hmm then how do we do them ?
 
isomorphism requires homomorphism and bijection
 
I get that
 
work with homomorphism, not bijection
 
4:49 AM
should I write the 36 products?
in the proof I mean
 
...
of course not
 
How to prove that its a hom then ?
 
list the elements of S_3
(so that we have the same notation)
 
okay
e, (12) , (13) , (23) , (123), (132)
 
$\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\0&1\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\1&1\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\0&1\end{bmatrix}$
$\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\1&1\end{bmatrix}$
tell me what e maps to @KasmirKhaan
 
4:52 AM
okay lets go from left to write
 
56 secs ago, by Leaky Nun
tell me what e maps to @KasmirKhaan
you should be able to answer this in one second.
@KasmirKhaan no, I'm not going from left to right
 
e , (13), (23) , (1,2) ,(123) , (132)
I meant
from what you sent me ,
@anon Hello !
 
@KasmirKhaan, follow my guides.
 
Okay
 
3 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
tell me what e maps to @KasmirKhaan
 
4:55 AM
e maps to e
allways =p
Identity matrxi
 
which one?
right
4 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
$\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\0&1\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\1&1\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\0&1\end{bmatrix}$
$\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}$ $\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\1&1\end{bmatrix}$
find an element with order 3 from here
 
Yes I answered that question based on those elements you wrote
 
1 min ago, by Leaky Nun
find an element with order 3 from here
this is my second question
 
(123) , (132)
Leaky I allready did this part =p
I am just wonderign , besides writing the group tables
is there another way to show that they are isomorphic
 
well
you just need to find what the two generators map to, and then express the other elements in both groups in terms of the two generators
 
4:59 AM
Hai
 
Its like, they both non abelian, both not cyclic , elements of some order are the same
(123) and (23) generates S_3
I think any transpotion with total permutation does
but did not prove that
 
I usually use (1,2) and (2,3) but whatever floats your boat
 
hmm
let me think one second here =p
 
after finding the generators, express the elements in terms of them
 
if we same that 2 elements generate the group
can we have one elemnt to the power 0 ?
 
5:03 AM
of course
 
lets use (12) , (23) , so we have
(12), (23) , (123) =(12) (23) , (132) = (23) (12) ,
we have e also
let me see how we get (13)
(12) (23)(12) = (13)
 
is that it?
 
all righty , S_3 = < (12),(23) >
Yes we got 6 elements
 
ok, then find out what those map to
and then express the other elements in terms of the image
 
(12) maps to 1's on the second diagonal
0's on the rest
(23) maps to all 1's exept for entry 21 of the matrix is 0
upper triangular
express the other elements in terms of the image ?
 
5:10 AM
yes
 
I dont know what that means
 
i mean in terms of the two matrices
 
Yes I know that the image is the elements of GL
did you mean f(xy) = f(x) f(y)
using the generators?
 
you mapped the two generators to two matrices
 
5:12 AM
express other matrices in terms of them
 
oh
but thats the same thing
oh well I think I got it :D
since the order of the groups is the same
I need only to show that this map is 1-1
and ill be done :D
I got few more more questions =p
@LeakyNun by analyzing the multiplication table, prove that every group of order 4 is isomorphic to either Z/2 x Z/2 or Z/4
I think here the important point is that
in a group each element can accur only once in each row and column
 
go on
 
from that I can exclude things like order of g = 3
in case of Z/4
since Z/4 is cyclic
G = <a> = {e, a,aa,aaa}
and I can show the hom easy ,1-1 and onto easy from a^k is mapper to 1^k
and for Z/2 x Z/2 , we can exclude order of elemnt to be 4
because that would be a copy of Z/4
order 3 is also excluded because then it wont be a group
only thing left is order 2
so that group is a^2 = e for all a in G
These are not formal ideas I know but how to make them more formal ?@LeakyNun
 
by analyzing the multiplication table.
 
Yes I did that
I mean i have the tables infront of me
but that is the problem that i have
dont know how to make things formal
 
5:25 AM
1
Q: Classifying groups of order 4

DH.Let $G$ be a group of order $4$ then either $ G \cong C_4$ or $G \cong C_2 \times C_2$ the proof my lecture gave goes as follows: Let $x \in G$ then by Lagrange $\text{ord}(x)$ divides $|G| =4 $ so w ehave either 1) $\exists x \in G$ with $x^4 = 1$ or 2) $\forall x \in G, x^2 = 1$ He then go...

 
Thanks :D
Did you give me that because you knew I understood the concept
or just because -.-
 
what?
 
I mean like
Did you give me the answer because you knew I understood the concept
because I don't want the answer , I want to learn how to do things right
Well I can do the rest on my own now =p
Btw can I still send you emails on the homeworks?
 
you just asked me how to make it formal
@KasmirKhaan ok
 
( once they are on textstudio ofc ) ><
Yes Ineed to see more examples how to write things to get exprience =p
 
5:31 AM
ok
 
All righty then =p
I think that is all the help I need from the second assigment :D
once am done with them, Ill email them for you :D
@LeakyNun Thanks for all your help again :D I have to go so see you later :)
 
ok
 
Btw some typo in the previous message:
 
3
Q: Question regarding Gambler's Ruin

Little RookieConsider a gambling process $(X_n)_{n∈\mathbb{N}}$ on the state space $S = {0, 1, . . . , N}$, with probability $p$, resp. $q$, of moving up, resp. down, at each time step. For $x = 0, 1, . . . , N$, let $τ_x$ denote the first hitting time, $τ_x := \inf\{n ≥ 0 : X_n = x\}$ Let $p_x := P(τ_{x+1} <...

 
Right, so the question narrows down to that we knew the hamel basis of a sequence space is also uncountable based on the BCT proof we just went through. In order to understand how so in a more "geometric" point of view, I need to know what the points $\ell^p -X$ look like
The following is my initial thought on how I think I can span this space with countably many finite dimensional balls that seemed make sense, but is wrong because it does not agree with the BCT proof
Let $\{X_n\}$ be a collection of finite dimensional subspaces of $\ell^p$ indexed by the natural numbers
 
6:04 AM
Is Collatz conjecture expressible in first-order Peano logic?
 
6:30 AM
Yes but it requires some work
Let $s(n)$ be a finite sequence of natural numbers such that for all $n$ such that $n+1$ is in the domain of $s$ we have $2s(n+1)=s(n)$ if $n$ is even and $s(n+1)=3s(n)+1$ if $n$ is odd. Then Collatz says "for all $k$ there is such an $s$ and an $n$ with $s(0)=k$ and $s(n)$=1$
 
hello
 
Gödel worked out how to code finite sequences of natural numbers in PA but I forgot the details
 
@AlessandroCodenotti :O
 
PA?
 
@usukidoll Peano arithmetic
 
6:39 AM
anyone wanna give feedback on a linear algebra proof? I think I got it but the way it's sounding is a bit off... :S
@LeakyNun OOOoh
 
@usukidoll just ask it.
 
18
Q: How is exponentiation defined in Peano arithmetic?

UQTHow would exponentiation be defined in Peano arithmetic? Unless $n$ is fixed natural number, $x^n$ seems to be hard to define. Edit 2: So, what would be the way to define $x^n+y^n = z^n$ using $\Sigma_1^0$ formula? Edit: OK, I say Peano arithmetic has addition and multiplication stuffs. This a...

Hm I always forget how to avoid that preview to pop up and take half of the chat space
 
@AlessandroCodenotti [link](link)
@AlessandroCodenotti it's so beautiful and mesmerizing...
 
:S
 
@AlessandroCodenotti The post mentioned in general topology chat room might be related to this. (At least to some extent. To be honest, I am now less sure than when I typed my first response to you.)
But it might be worth having a look if you are still interested in that problem.
 
6:44 AM
@MartinSleziak where does the question above about PA belong?
in terms of, you know, chatroom
 
@MartinSleziak thanks, I didn't notice you posted it in another room! I've only dealt with (upper) semicontinuity once so I'm not really familiar with it, I'll get back to this problem after I'm done with my exam tomorrow though
 
ok it sounds a bit tacky... x_X! I'm referring to my proof answer. :S @LeakyNun should I still post it here?
 
@Daminark Incidentally, uncountability of Hamel basis in Banach spaces was a topic recently in functional analysis chat room. And, as expected, there is a post on main about this: Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable..
 
@usukidoll if you have a question, ask it. Don't ask "is anyone ..." because nobody is obliged to answer your problems
 
>:O kicking myself for finding a great topology supplemental book 3 weeks into the semester. ugh
 
6:48 AM
@AlessandroCodenotti do you have some puzzles for PA?
 
Not really, I don't know much about logic
 
chat is behaving strangely these days
16
A: How is exponentiation defined in Peano arithmetic?

Hagen von EitzenUsing the following abbreviations $$\begin{align}a\le b&\equiv\exists n\colon a+n=b\\ a< b&\equiv Sa\le b\\ \operatorname{mod}(a,b,c)&\equiv \exists n\colon a=b\cdot n+c\land c<b\\ \operatorname{seq}(a,b,k,x)&\equiv \operatorname{mod}(a,S(b\cdot Sk),x)\\ \operatorname{pow}(a,b,c)&\equiv\exists x...

@AlessandroCodenotti I find this answer neater than the accepted answer
@AkivaWeinberger hi
 
7:03 AM
Hi
$\sqrt{x^2+1}+x$ and $\sqrt{x^2+1}-x$ are multiplicative inverses
 
Are you interested in PA?
@AkivaWeinberger right
 
They are also reflections of each other in the $y$-axis
and they kinda look like $e^x$ if it grew linearly
(in that it's always positive and goes to zero as $x$ goes to $-\infty$)
 
neat
 
(The first one, at least; the second is the mirror image)
I think I should probably dip out of chat and go to bed though
Bye
 
Both $e^x$ and $\sqrt{x^2+1}+x$ satisfy the functional equation $f(x) f(-x) = 1$
 
7:12 AM
cat stew
 
7:37 AM
Assumptions:
S(x) !=  0.
S(x) = S(y) -> x = y.
exists y S(x) = y.
Goal:
S(0) != S(S(0)).
Proof generated:
1 S(x) = S(y) -> x = y # label(non_clause).  [assumption].
2 (exists x S(y) = x) # label(non_clause).  [assumption].
3 S(0) != S(S(0)) # label(non_clause) # label(goal).  [goal].
4 S(x) != 0.  [assumption].
5 S(x) != S(y) | x = y.  [clausify(1)].
6 S(x) = f1(x).  [clausify(2)].
7 S(S(0)) = S(0).  [deny(3)].
8 f1(f1(0)) = f1(0).  [copy(7),rewrite([6(2),6(3),6(5)])].
9 f1(x) != f1(y) | x = y.  [back_rewrite(5),rewrite([6(1),6(2)])].
10 f1(x) != 0.  [back_rewrite(4),rewrite([6(1)])].
11 f1(0) = 0.  [hyper(9,a,8,a)].
computers are so powerful now, lol
 

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