What is a family? I read on wikipedia that it's a collection of subsets of a set, so is it correct to say that a family is a set of subsets of a set? Perhaps I make things too complicated...is something more behind families?
A universal $G$ bundle is a $G$ bundle so that any other $G$ bundle is isomorphic to a pullback bundle over this bundle. Can this be expressed in a way that makes this seem like a universal property?
@Fargle because that requires the assertion that the world is real. Nobody can claim that statement with 100% certainty. You say real world must be what is observed. I claim the lesser requirement of studying what is around them or the world they are a part of. After all, if there were a fictitious world, why wouldn't the residents of that world be justified in studying science?
usually ive seen universal properties to be expressed via a diagram, for example the stone cech compactification is universal in that any map from a space into a compacta factorises uniquely via the stone cech compactification
@Typhon Let me clarify, then: by "what we observe" I mean what comes to us through the senses, and therefore through experiment, and by "the real world" I mean that which can be said to exist independent of human observation.
@Typhon yes but ive rarely seen something called a universal construction that did not have some kind of a categorical definition via uniqueness of some such diagram
but in any case form the category of spaces with free proper G-action. the projection to the quotient shows that this is the same thing as a principal bundle
maps are G-equicariant maps
in the language of G-bundles, the maps are maps f: X -> Y with isomorphism f*P' = P
then EG is the terminal object in the homotopy category of this
I'm looking for a simple function in terms of the elementary and exponential functions that when passed an integer x and integer y, it returns the number of times that y can be divided from x such that the result is an integer. I believe that it is something along the lines of $\lfloor\log_y(x)\r...
Anyhow, if anyone has time: Let $n\in\mathbb Z_{>0}$ and $d$ a positive divisor of $n$. It is clear that the subgroup $\{\overline d,\dots,\overline n\}$ of $\mathbb Z/m\mathbb Z$ has order $n/d$ and index $d$. Now my book proceeds to write that a cyclic group of order $n$ for each divisor $d$ of $n$ has a subgroup with index $d$. I don’t understand why.
I know that each cyclic group of order $n$ is isomorphic with $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$. However, does that mean that if $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ has a subgroup of index $d$ for each divisor $d$ of $n$, then automatically the same holds for any cyclic group? I guess I should show this using the isomorphism between $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ and this cyclic group, which we could call $\langle x\rangle$. Not sure how to proceed; maybe use contradiction?
First one was about proving for $n\ge 6$ that $\sum_{k=3}^{n+2} k^n \lt (n+3)^n$, the exercise advised to first prove $\left(1-{k\over n+3}\right)^n\lt{1\over 2^k}$ for $k\in \{1,\dots, n\}$. Convexity solves this one for $n\ge7$ and you have to do $n=6$ by hand (read : with a calculator, bah). Then find all integers $n\in\Bbb N$ such that $\sum_{k=3}^{n+2} k^n = (n+3)^n$.
Second one was proving there was a unique solution of $y'-y=e^{-x^2}$ going to $0$ at both infinities.
I didn't pass yet, I won't have the results till end of july (although I'm pretty confident I'll get this group of schools)
Guys, how can I show that $H=\{\overline p,\overline{2p},\dots,\overline{np}\}$, where $p\nmid n$, equals $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$? Say $\overline x\in\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$. We can write $x=qn+r$ for $0\leq r<n$, so $\overline x=\overline r$. I was thinking it should follow from here that $\overline x\in H$, but I'm not sure how.
Cause I had a physics oral exam where I figured you needed a 10W power transmitted to a small ball of metal in order for the light to be able to lift it
In the text "Theory of Functions of One Complex Variable", I'm having trouble verifying the way I expressed the Laplacian Operator, and generalizing $(1.)$ to functions of more then one complex variable following Proposition in $(1.)$ Also I'm having trouble establishing the geometrical intuition...
Interresting exercise (not too hard if you like algebra) I did not have today : If $\{A_1, \dots, A_p\}\subset GL_n(\Bbb C)$ is closed under product, show $Tr(\sum_{k=1}^p A_k) \equiv 0\pmod p$ ($p\in \Bbb N$).
The notes take $\alpha(t)$ to be a smooth map from a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}^3$, assigning to each real $t$ a point $(x^1(t),x^2(t),x^3(t))$ in $\mathbb{R}^3.$
But I'd probably go down an algebra route, either more number theory-y or algebraic topology. Those subjects seem to be most up my alley, as opposed to like, analysis
(We'll see about geometry)
Today I turn 20, second year college student, not grad school
Particularly since they go on to write the expression $\alpha_* (\frac{d}{dt})=\alpha'(t)$
where $\alpha_*$ is the push-forward.
Should I be thinking of $\alpha'(t)$ and $\alpha(t)$ as basically different kinds of objects? That's what would seem to make sense but it doesn't feel right...
{Tr(A_1), ..., Tr(A_p)} is then a subset of C closed under multiplication. Pretty sure that means it's, upto scale, a bunch of roots of unity (a Z/p subgroup of the circle group).