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8:00 AM
Hi! If I tell you : "Environments: interface, interaction, homogeneity, break". What does that inspire you in mathematics? For a project, I have to find a subject in maths related to these words, but I did not find nothing.
 
Yeah it's a lot of fun, I did the apprentice version last year, which had a 5 week class on linear algebra and a bit of graph theory/combinatorics. Paper was on Sylow
Category theory is one thing that comes to mind, I guess @MiKiDe
 
8:13 AM
Hm... I'll look for it. It's a project alike what you call "REU". I hope it isn't too hard for a second year student in university, is it?
Thank you
 
I have also just finished second year and the vibe I get with category theory is that it's a new way to think about things, which isn't necessarily hard to grasp but whose advantages over doing things normally aren't apparent unless you have more background
I haven't studied any of it myself, but the vibe I get is that it wants to not think of functions via how they're acting on elements so much as how they interact with each other
For example, you can think about an invertible linear transformation in terms of just being bijective and linear, which is more elements based
Alternatively, there's the fact that a linear map $T$ has the property that $rk(T\circ S) = rk(S)$ for any linear map $S$ if and only if it's an invertible linear map
The vibe I get is that stuff along the latter lines is how you want to be thinking in categories (please someone do correct me if I'm wrong, perhaps @Steamy?)
But it's not necessarily as insightful unless you see it in the right context, usually algebra and (mostly) algebraic topology/geometry
 
hi. we learned about the fundamental group $\Pi_1$ . and i know that $\Pi_1(S \ ^ 1 ) = \Bbb Z$ (iso' to).
 
@SohamChowdhury Good, good
 
i need to find $f : X \to Y$ continuous s.t $X,Y$ both path connected and $f_*$ is not the trivial homomorphism / the identity.
i thought taking $X = S \ ^ 1$ and $Y = S \ ^ 1 \times S \ ^ 2$ $f(x) =(-x,x)$
 
Hey there @Liad!
 
8:22 AM
@Daminark hey ! how are you?
 
Hmm, I'd actually be interested in talking about this
 
hi chat
 
(Also I'm alright, you?)
(And hey @Balarka)
 
im fine :P
 
But yeah so, I think I have an idea in mind about how to show that $\pi_1(S^1) = \mathbb{Z}$
 
8:23 AM
(I will keep my mouth shut)
 
i can use this fact
 
So, do you know what homotopy equivalence is?
 
yea
 
@Daminark And, why the words I told you make you think about Category theory?
 
OK, so what I want to show is that if 2 spaces are homotopy equivalent, they share the same fundamental group
The idea being, I've proven once before that 2 curves in the punctured plane are homotopy equivalent if and only if they have the same winding number
 
8:25 AM
my question is : how can i "see" the $f_*$ above. it is defined as $f_*([g] ) = [f (g )] $ (composition)
 
@MiKiDe interaction and I guess to a lesser extent, interface, do the most, because of how broad the subject is
 
lol damn it @Dami, you're nuking flies again
 
i know that this homomorphis is like between $\Bbb Z $ and $\Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z$ but im not sure how it is defined
 
In proving the fundamental group of the circle?
 
He's not trying to prove $\pi_1(S^1) \cong \Bbb Z$.
 
8:28 AM
no. i can use this fact . i defined a mapping $f(x) = (-x,x) $
i want to show that $f_*$ is not trivial nor the identity. but im not sure how.
maybe it is trivial / the identity but i have a feeling it is not :P
 
@Balarka I was actually replying to @Fargle
 
Ah ok
@Liad Well, I don't see how your map is defined. $x$ is a point on $S^1$. How are you thinking of it as a point in $S^2$?
How does $x$ in the second coordinate of $(-x, x) \in S^1 \times S^2$ make sense?
 
I would say so but that's because the second result (about winding number) doesn't strike me as any more obvious
 
it is a point in $S \ ^ 1 \times S \ ^ 1$
did i wrote $S \ ^ 2$ ? oops .
 
Ah, alright.
I'll let Dami answer.
 
8:33 AM
@Fargle so, I think I know how to do the winding number stuff
So let $\omega_0 = \frac{-ydx + xdy}{x^2 + y^2}$
Crap my internet is being dumb
I had to switch to my phone briefly and cannot really type it out, gimme a bit
 
iss ok
 
maybe there is a simpler $f:X \to Y$ s.t $X,Y$ are path connected and $f_*$ is not the identity/trivial ?
 
Yes.
There is a much simpler one. I am not sure if I should answer or @Daminark wants to.
 
I haven't learned enough about this sort of thing in particular so I shall defer
 
@Liad Ok, so first, your example works. To see this, consider your map $f: S^1 \to S^1 \times S^1$ given by $f(x) = (x, -x)$. Let $p_1, p_2 : S^1 \times S^1 \to S^1$ be the projection maps to the two circle factors. Then $p_1 \circ f$ and $p_2 \circ f$ are the identity and the antipodal map respectively.
That means $(p_1 \circ f)_*$ and $(p_2 \circ f)_*$ are the identity $\Bbb Z \to \Bbb Z$ homomorphism and the multiplication by -1 homomorphism respectively.
Since $(p_i \circ f)_\star = (p_i)_\star \circ f_\star$, that implies $f_\star : \Bbb Z \to \Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z$ is actually the homomorphism $f(n) = (n, -n)$, which is not identity nor trivial.
 
8:44 AM
@Daminark Well, I've only had a basic intro in Category Theory and that was a few years ago by now. My feeling was that, if you're only interested in a specific mathematical structure, there's little point to studying it on the category level.
On the other hand, category theory was amazing in showing how (sometimes very different) structures can be abstracted and suddenly are very similar. I really liked the whole initial and terminal objects thing
 
@Liad In any case, it does not particularly make sense to say whether or not $f_*$ is identity if $\pi_1(X)$ and $\pi_1(Y)$ are not isomorphic.
For the simpler example(s): how many maps $f : S^1 \to S^1$ do you know, upto homotopy?
 
@Daminark Finally, the category theory is to difficult for the time I have for my subject and the things I learnt. But thank you!
 
wait can we go a bit back? @BalarkaSen im not sure about your conclusion that $f(n) = (n,-n)$ this is what i wanted to say too, but what is your justification for that?
 
I just gave a justification...
 
Okay I hope for the love of God that this works out
The internet in my apartment is garbage, I'm connecting to the hospital guest wifi nearby
 
8:49 AM
If the induced map is $f_* : \Bbb Z \to \Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z$, then composing with the projection homomorphisms to each of the $\Bbb Z$ factors you get (1) the identity map (2) the multiplication by -1 homomorphism.
 
@Fargle
 
hi guys
I have a math question (although related to a different field)
 
@Daminark fer shur
 
The first thing to note about the angle form I defined above is that its integral over the circle traversed $n$ times is that it has integral $2\pi n$
Thus, $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{nS^1} \omega_0 = n$, where I'm saying $nS^1$ to mean traversing it $n$ times
 
say you have $p$ integer numbers of $k$ bit each, namely x_1,...,x_p and you sum this numbers together you will obtain a sum s and a carry c
s + 2^k c
what's a lower bound on the max value for s
?
 
8:52 AM
@BalarkaSen alright.
 
I have a reference that says 2^k - 1
but I'd like to understand why
 
Now, given any curve in the punctured plane $\gamma$, you can project it to $S^1$ via normalization
So now, you've homotoped it to some $e^{i\alpha(t)}$
By smoothness of the exponential, homotoping $\alpha(t)$ is a homotopy of the whole curve
 
I'm asking again if someone else as an idea: If I tell you : "Environments: interface, interaction, homogeneity, break". What does that inspire you in mathematics (or in computer science maybe)?
 
Then you homotope $\alpha(t)$ to be straight, this gives you that it's homotopic to some traversal of the circle
 
@user8469759 Well, $2^k - 1$ is the maximum value of a $k$ bit number, no?
 
8:56 AM
So you know any curve can be homotoped to some $n$-times traversal of the circle. But since $\omega_0$ is closed, the only possibility for $n$ is $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{\gamma} \omega_0$
So thus, we know that the fundamental group of the punctured plane is $\mathbb{Z}$
(It's path connected, so this is true for any base point)
Now, the idea behind proving that homotopy equivalence preserves the fundamental group seems to fall out of using the thing Liad was talking about
I looked it up just now, the idea is that given a function $f$ from $X$ to $Y$, you can take loops based at $x_0$ and run them through $f$ to get loops based at $y_0$
 
This plays nicely with the group operation and everything, so in fact is an induced homomorphism between their based fundamental groups
(KEK @Steamy, that was beautiful)
But yeah, homotopic maps have the same induced homomorphism, which I think checks out because $f\circ \gamma$ is homotopic to $g\circ \gamma$ if $f$ is to $g$
So, if you have two homotopy equivalent spaces, say with maps $f$ and $g$, you know the induced homomorphisms must compose to the identity
This implies that those induced homomorphisms are isomorphisms
Perhaps you might have to worry about basepoints to make that jump, but at least if they're path connected this definitely checks out
So, if two path connected spaces are homotopy equivalent, they have isomorphic fundamental groups
Now, applying that here, we know that the punctured plane has a fundamental group of $\mathbb{Z}$
So, consider the normalization map and embedding of $S^1$ in $\mathbb{R}^2\setminus 0$
Those two maps compose to ones which are homotopy equivalent to the identity in each case. Hence, $\pi_1(S^1) =\mathbb{Z}$
Sounds good @Fargle?
 
Oh I thought you were proving in the other direction, lol.
 
Oh lmao
I don't actually know how to compute $\pi_1(S^1)$ directly yet
Just this roundabout way
Hmm, I think an analogue of this argument could likely be used for $\pi_n(S^n)$, yeah?
Like, perhaps $\pi_n(\mathbb{R}^{n+1}\setminus 0) = \mathbb{Z}$
 
9:12 AM
Not directly. You need a crucial theorem which says $H_n(S^n) = \pi_n(S^n)$ where $H_*$ is the homology group.
This comes from Hurewicz theorem, which is an entirely algerbo-topologic machinery
Once you know that, you can compute $H_n(\Bbb R^{n+1} - 0)$ from deRham stuff
The point is integration only captures winding numbers upto homology, not homotopy.
 
Is this just for $S^n$ or more generally?
Oh wait a second there's an easier way to do this perhaps
Hopf degree theorem
 
If $H_i(X) = 0$ for all $0 < i < n$ then $H_n(X) = \pi_n(X)$ for any CW complex $X$.
 
What is the meaning of an equal sign with three lines? Is it like defined as?
Edit: Not in the context of modulo operations of course
 
Hmm, well, hopefully we'll do that stuff soon in atop
 
Yes, this is a consequence of the Hopf degree theorem.
 
9:17 AM
Lol I remember May was telling us after mentioning the weak homotopy equivalence thingy (which I think I now get after this shtick) that any decent atop class jumps into CW complexes, so hopefully he'll get into that soon enough
In the meantime I should probably go to bed because he's doing the extra atop talk at noon where he gets into homology/cohomology
 
Yeah good night
 
(Which is exactly what I need to understand that stuff you said :P)
Good night!
 
Hey, @Balarka. Textme when you are online
 
I am online.
 
Hi, I saw your name in the ATM workshop on diff geo
I am a junior UG at IIT-K
 
9:29 AM
Ah yes I am supposed to go there
Are you going too?
 
No, my semester will start
So I didn't apply
 
Ok, I see
 
Actually I started using MathSE only a couple of days back
So, was pleasantly surprised so see a name I recognized in the chatroom :3
 
Got it. Nice to know you, welcome to MSE.
I don't use the main site frequently but I do roam the chat rather frequently.
 
I know that this may not be a very polite question, but I was just wondering that how were you initiated into math?
Is someone in your family a math prof, or something like that
 
9:34 AM
That's a fair question. It's hard to answer that I guess; no, none of my family members studied mathematics extensively, but I guess I looked at a few Russian pop-math books.
 
Oh those green ones <3
Anyway
Have you heard of the caratheodory conjecture?
 
I don't think so.
What does it say?
 
It basically states that a closed and convex surface has atleast 2 umbilic points
It is open for about 80 years
 
I have forgotten what an umbillic point is. The two principal curvatures are equal?
 
Showing the existence of one umbilic is trivial because of the poincare hopf index theorem
Yeah
I was reading about it a few minutes back and thought of going at it via the borsuk ulham theorem
As in we look at the continuous function $k_1 - k_2$on the surface
(since closed convex surface is homeomorphic to sphere so we can do all sorts of things)
 
9:41 AM
Let me try to understand it a bit better, I am sort of rusty at differential geometry of surfaces. So $k_1 = k_2$ means the shape map stretches both the principle directions by the same factor.
Why's it clear there is at least one umbilic point?
 
Yeah, $k_1 = k_2$ means that both the principle curvatures are equal, that is to say that the surface is locally spherical.
That is a consequnce of the poincare hpf index theorem
*hopf
 
Ok, but I want to understand how Poincare-Hopf implies that.
 
sorry, my mother had just called me
Yeah
Okay so assume that there is no umbilic
 
But the sphere has a non zero euler characteristic
Here 2
 
9:51 AM
I agree.
 
So now, cosider the vector field of the principal curvature line
Now if you had no umbilic points it can't lead to a non-zero euler characterisitic
I am sorry I missed one point
The surfaces are assumed to be atleast twice differentiable
 
Surfaces usually mean smooth surface to me so that's fine.
 
Okay
 
I am not sure what you mean by the vector field of the principal curvature line though. The principal directions are defined locally, how do you extend that to a vector field on all of the surface?
 
But they are contious
*continous
 
9:57 AM
Hm, I guess. You are simply taking the eigenspace of the IInd fundamental form at each tangent space.
That does give a 1-dimensional vector field on the surface.
What next?
 
quick question, what is a representative of 0 in Ext^2(A,B)? where A,B are modules (say over R). The sum should be the Baer sum, but I found difficult to write down explicitly an exact sequence 0->B->X_1->X_2->A->0 representing 0
 
@balarka
so isn't the proof obvious now
 
@AdityaKumar I don't see how so, though. The vector fields you constructed on the surface might be zero, say, if the surface is flat somewhere.
You want a nonzero vector field to contradict $\chi(S^2) = 2$ via Poincare-Hopf.
 
But umbilic points can be a flat region, there are plenty of such cases
Just to set everythingstraight
The field that we have, it's zeros correspond to the umbilic points
 
what is a great way to write latex online ?
like easy way
 
10:01 AM
Overleaf
Best way
 
oh nice!
 
tremensous way
*tremendous
Best, the best, the very very best
*it
Even the president uses t
 
@SteamyRoot yes, the max, but how come that's the min?
 
oh
which president?
:)
 
The greatest of them all
TheDonald
 
10:02 AM
oh
 
@bala
do you use hangouts
?
 
@AdityaKumar The field is just in the direction of the one of the eigenspaces of $\Bbb{II}$, right? Doesn't the zeroes simply correspond to when $k_1 = 0$? Or am I misunderstanding your vector field?
I use email but not as frequently as this chat. I'd rather talk here.
 
um, oh I see your point now
No
I was incorrect. I goofed up somewhere
 
I think it's an interesting idea to use Poincare-Hopf, but I think some work is needed.
 
First of all, it is a well known proof. I have read it bedore. Having problems in reconstructing it :3
(for one umbilic point)
 
10:07 AM
I understand, no problem, I have hard time recalling a lot of things I have learnt. I have personally never seen the proof, myself.
 
Btw, do apply to the Analytic Number theory ATM at ISI
You know Ritabrata Munshi right?>
 
Oh, interesting, I didn't know about that ATM. I have met him.
 
It is in december
 
I am not much of a number theory person, however, myself :P I wouldn't have gone to the geometry conference either if not for the peer pressure.
 
Oh, when, I mean how did you meet him
Lol even I am not a number theory or algebraic geometry person
 
10:11 AM
Ah, so I was there in ISICal at a small talk on number theory & dynamics. We had a small chat over stuff, but that's it.
 
Hmm
What are you into these days?
 
Majorly, preparing for various exams to get into a good university. But on the math side of things, mainly topology.
Foliations, in particular, I suppose.
 
You are in 11th class right?
 
12th right now, but yes.
 
Oh, you SHOULD apply to Princeton and MIT and Harvard
 
10:14 AM
0
Q: Lower bound on the residual of a sum of $p$ numbers of $k$ bits each

user8469759Say we have $x_1,\ldots,x_p$ numbers represented in $k$ bits. The sum of such numbers will be generally something of the form $$ \sum_{j=1}^{p} x_j = s + 2^k c $$ There's a subtle point I can't understand from a reference I have, which states something like Since $s$ is the residual after s...

 
Also don't miss out on UCB
 
I don't plan to go outside of the country any time soon.
 
Oh then CMI is the place to be
However
 
yeah that's one of the options I have in mind.
 
If you want to have a slightly broad education(which I in my finite wisdom will recommend)
Go to IISc
There is math dept has more breadth
 
10:15 AM
As in, broader into science than just mathematical sciences?
 
Both
IISc has a broad math dept as well
FOr example
CMI is terrible in analysis
But at IISc you have people like THangavelu
 
Hah, I have heard of that.
 
Also IISc will give you a better life
As in, CMI is a depressing place
IISc has great weather and is quite pleasant.
 
Indeed? Do you mean that in terms of workload and pressure?
 
No
That will depend on what kind of courses you take
But IISc is better as a place
As in CMI is in the outskirts and is a very small campus
 
10:17 AM
I see. So you mean the atmosphere.
 
Whereas IISc has a very big lush and green campus at the center f the city
And people there are generally happier
 
Technically, I am a well-recognized madman who prefers depression and solitude more, but I appreciate that suggestion. I might apply for IISc.
I think one has to take the KVPY's for applying there?
 
Yeah
I am pretty sure you will do great at bth places
*both
It is just that I personally like to dive into multiple areas of math
Fianlly
One thing that you must not overlook is that TIFR-CAM is also in banglore
Now, I have know idea why people shun PDE's in India
But at TIFR_CAM there are some read bigshots like Adimurthy etc
You can also take courses there if you are at IISc.
 
TIFR is a nice place; I went to TIFR Bombay a year or so ago.
 
For?
 
10:21 AM
Nothing much. I studied some algebraic geometry there.
 
Ah, btw do you know about John Pardon
?
John Vincent Pardon (born June 1989) is an American mathematician who works on geometry and topology. He is primarily known for having solved Gromov's problem on distortion of knots, for which he was awarded the 2012 Morgan Prize. He is currently a full professor of mathematics at Princeton University. == Education and accomplishments == Pardon's father, William Pardon, is a mathematics professor at Duke University, and when Pardon was a high school student at the Durham Academy he also took classes at Duke. He was a three-time gold medalist at the International Olympiad in Informatics, in 2005...
 
Yep, I have heard of him.
 
This dude
 
Something something Hilbert-Smith conjecture.
 
Read the wikipedia page
 
10:23 AM
Some academic record he has.
 
Yeah
And then there are lesser mortals like me :3
 
It's hard to be a god, man.
 
Um, not like I want to be. Anyway, in math it is hard work and patience that matters more than anything else. Of course you'd know a thing or two about it
What all have you done in geometry/topology till now?
 
Absolutely, I don't think being a god is a good goal to have. I like what I spend my time doing, even if it's doing stupid things. At least I think.
Well, my geometry is weak, so I can't brag about it :P I like topology. I have studied a bit of algebraic topology.
 
What else other than hatcher?
 
10:29 AM
I don't like any of the other classical books on algebraic topology, unfortunately. I have used Guillemin-Pollack for differential topology, on the other hand.
 
Yeah, that is a really cute book. I read it this summer only.
 
I like it a lot.
Milnor's little book is good too, but there's not enough exercises.
 
The one on vector bundles and characteristic classes?
 
Oh, no, that's Milnor-Stasheff
I meant intro to differentiable manifolds
or something, I forget the title
 
Oh that. Um, yeah. It is not at all rigourous though
 
10:32 AM
I like the pedagogy. Usually rigor is secondary in topology; the pictures are primary.
 
Anyway, I just saw this pretty nice theorem
Hadamard-Levy
 
Is that the global inverse function theorem?
 
not aware of that, sorry
Let f:Rn→Rn of class C2. Then f is a C1-diffeomorphism on Rn→Rn if, and only if, f is a proper map and the determinant of the Jacobian matrix is non-null everywhere.
 
That's what I meant. It is a global version of the inverse function theorem.
classical inverse function theorem says $f$ is locally a C2 diffeomorphism at x if Df(x) $\neq$ 0, but with the assumption that it's proper and Df $\neq$ 0 everywhere you get it's globally a C1 diffeomorphism
 
Ah, yeah
 
10:36 AM
It's a very, very nice theorem.
 
Yeah, a diffeomorphism generator :D
 
This can be proved topologically, in fact. Note that because $Df(x) \neq 0$ for every $x$, it's a local diffeomorphism.
Proper local diffeomorphisms are covering maps
And the only covering map $f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ is... a diffeomorphism
 
Yeah, I know exactly what you mean
It was an exercise in Narsimhan's book
Raghavan Narsiman
 
I have heard of it, actually. There was a few times I looked into it and found some insightful comments.
 
Narsimhan was one of the gods actually
He gave n invited talk at ICM at age 25
 
10:40 AM
damn
 
you have 7-8 years to catch up xP
 
I don't think I want to catch up :P
(Not that I would be able to)
 
Yeah lol, I only got 3. I'm already older than Galois was when he was 20. Feels bad.
 
@fargle LOL :p
 
kill yourself if you don't get fields medal yo
 
10:42 AM
Well, I count till 54 :p
Ever since Yitang Zhang got his result
 
@BalarkaSen It took me 13 years of concerted effort to learn how to speak to girls. I'll be lucky if I can even read a whole paper by the time I'm 80.
3
 
@Fargl
you were doing things the inefficient way
 
what a waste of those good 13 years
 
You should have watched coupling first in 3 hours
and that is more than enough preparation
 
@BalarkaSen yeah I mean I'm single now, clearly I didn't learn much
 
10:43 AM
+1
 
speaking from experience and it delivered empirically verifiable reuslts
*results :p
anyway
gtg now
@balarka See ya
 
Take care.
 
Talk later.
@Fargle I'm currently in the process of unlearning how to talk to human beings generically.
 
Listen to this
Both of you
 
@BalarkaSen Hopefully that goes better for you than it has for me.
 
10:45 AM
(with the lyrics)
 
I think I have some kind of empathy deficit that I've covered for with mirror-neuron-type behaviors.
 
@Fargle I'm climbing such divine heights of misanthropy as never before, of course I'll be fine
read Notes from The Underground, my literary bible
that book is the closest i have to a religion
 
@BalarkaSen I've never been less of a misanthrope. I've really started to like people. It's great except when people don't feel the same back at you.
Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy is that book for me.
(Well, the whole five-book trilogy)
 
@Fargle hahah. I'm happy for you; I guess that's a bit better for getting a functioning functional life.
I have heard of those books, but never read them.
 
@Daminark So this is how you do it:
First, let's show that the sum of opposite values in a 3x3 square must be zero. (By 3x3 I mean the top side has three dots, not three edges)
Well, there are four small squares in the 3x3, so take the alternating sum. That gives you (using your notation from earlier) $f(1)-f(3)+f(7)-f(9)=0$ when it all cancels out.
 
10:59 AM
@Fargle Do you watch movies?
 
Add the four corners of that square ($f(1)+f(3)+f(7)+f(9)=0$), and divide by two, getting $f(1)+f(9)=0$. Lemma proven.
Now, let's look at a 5x5 grid.
Call the four corners $f(1)$, $f(5)$, $f(21)$, and $f(25)$, and call the middle point $f(13)$
From the lemma, we know that $f(1)+f(13)=0$, $f(5)+f(13)=0$, $f(21)+f(13)=0)$, and $f(25)+f(13)=0$.
Adding them all up, and subtracting off the corners $f(1)+f(5)+f(21)+f(25)=0$, gives $4f(13)=0$, or $f(13)=0$. QED
…Incidentally, the following set of values works for a 6x6 area:
$$\begin{bmatrix}0&0&+1&-1&0&0\\0&0&-1&+1&0&0 \\-1&+1&0&0&-1&+1\\+1&-1&0&0&+1&-1\\ 0&0&+1&-1&0&0\\0&0&-1&+1&0&0 \end{bmatrix}$$
 
hi chat
what's going on?
 
@LeakyNun I have no idea. While the bionomial coefficients have the symmetry $\begin{pmatrix}m \\ r \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} m \\ m-r \end{pmatrix}$, the way the numbers combined (checking cases $(m,n)=(2,1),(3,2),(4,3),(4,2)$) always cancel out but seemed to have no dependence on where they are in the expansion. I cannot see any inherent pattern (if any)
 
However, up to constant multiples, that's the only way to fill out the 6x6.
@Semiclassical See the above proof
Applying an affine transformation to it gives us a proof for parallelograms as well.
 
In addition, the ratio between the r+1th and rth terms is $-\frac{(r+1)^{n-1}}{r^n(m-r-1)}$ which again does not show any useful pattern (and in face blows up for $r=0,r+1=1$)
 
11:16 AM
@AlessandroCodenotti See the array right above your comment?
If you take any four points that form a square in it, and add the values there, you get $0$
(Only ones with sides parallel to the axes)
Also, that solution is unique up to constant multiples.
 
oh, interesting
how do you know it's unique?
 
The explanation I wrote above (which shows that it must be zero everywhere if it's on a a plane) can be used to show that as well @AlessandroCodenotti
But you could consider it to be a puzzle if you want
 
skull patrol changed his name!
:)
 
11:32 AM
Hi scald control
 
scald?
hot liquid patrol
;)
 
Hi pals...
 
was that a slap reverse :)
 
If I have a cofibration $A\overset i\to X$, how is the cofiber usually defined?
let $A$ and $X$ be pointed spaces i guess
is it the mapping cylinder?
(google is super unhelpful)
 
11:57 AM
Ok I seemed to be getting nowhere:

[E,L]=0

Pick a basis. Under this basis, then $L=\sum_{i=1}^nl_{ij}$ and $E=\sum_{i=1}^ns_{ij}$. Let a polynomial $f(x)=\sum_{k=1}^na_kx^k$. Now if we compute, the following, the coefficients becomes:

$LEf=\sum_{i,j,k=1}^nl_{ij}s_{jk}a_k$

$ELf=\sum_{i,j,k=1}^ns_{ij}l_{jk}a_k$

Since it is given $[E,L]=0$, and $f$ is arbitrary, we get the relation $s_{ij}l_{jk}=l_{ij}s_{jk}$

Now suppose there's a linear map $C$ such that it maps $E$ to $E^{\frac{1}{2}}$. Then under this basis we have:
 

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