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12:00 AM
No we haven't even defined pole
 
Oh ...
 
Though I know it from self teaching
 
So maybe there's a totally elementary manipulation. I don't see it. Of course there are two cases: $a_1=0$ and $a_1\ne 0$.
 
I think that the professor doesnt appreciate the difficulty of the homework assignments because he has a grader
 
@Leaky, I forgot to ping you but my "all you need is definitions" was to you.
Oh, @GFauxPas, I see how it might work. Try writing down $f(z)=f(w)$ explicitly and factor out $z-w$.
 
12:03 AM
Okay I'll try that when I have a desk, thanks Ted :)
 
@TedShifrin those are Euclidean transformations?
 
@Leaky: $A^\top A = I$.
Orthogonal matrices. Special means det = 1.
 
I mean, is the space $\Bbb R^n$? @TedShifrin
 
Luckily he said the exam will be based on lectures rather than the textbook, which is good because i like the lecturers a lot better
 
huh. I didn't know \top was a thing
 
12:05 AM
I learned it several years after the first edition of the linear algebra book, @Semiclassic :P
What space, @Leaky?
 
vector space?
 
Yes, $n\times n$ real matrices.
 
how can the quotient be finite lol
 
What quotient?
 
intuitively there are so much more matrices
$O(n)/SO(n)$
 
12:06 AM
What can you say about $\det A$ if $A^\top A = I$?
 
there really aren't so many
 
You still need to learn linear algebra :P
 
oh right
1 or -1 vs just 1
 
Right.
 
@TedShifrin :c
 
12:07 AM
There's your $\Bbb Z_2$.
 
@TedShifrin I guess the spectral theorem is overkill?
 
Spectral theorem for whom?
You should be pleased, @Mathei. We're thinking about $\text{Ext}^1(G,G')$. :D
 
yup, I noticed that
I used the spectral theorem for normal operators in the finite-dimensional case
 
Aha ... To give a normal form for rotations. Definitely not needed here. :)
It's more a question about splitting or non-splitting :P
 
unfortunately rotations make me think Euler angles
and thats...not fun
 
12:14 AM
@TedShifrin when $Z(H)=G$?
 
Huh?
 
you asked me when $G/H \cong K \implies G \cong H \times K$
my guess is when $Z(H)=G$
 
Shouldn't it depend on $K$?
 
H,K normal and their intersection is 1
 
@Jacksoja who said $K$ was a subgroup of $G/H$?
 
12:30 AM
I suggested in my original statement that $K$ was isomorphic to a subgroup.
 
oh
 
i really don't like bra-ket notation.
 
The real answer is: if the induced $K$-module structure on $H$ is trivial and the factor system associated to the sequence $1 \to H \to G \to K \to 1$ is trivial in $H^2(K,H)$ :^)
 
hi @heather :)
 
hi everyone agai
 
12:32 AM
@TedShifrin hello =)
 
hi @Meow
 
hello @MeowMix
 
hi @Meow
 
hi hed & teather
and mathei
 
If a smooth function $f$ between 2 manifolds is a local diffeomorphism when restricted to some open set, is also $df$ locally an isomorphism between tangent spaces?
 
12:32 AM
i looked at your number 7 thing
 
@Mathei: You might as well lecture on why one splitting of a SES is equivalent to the other splitting.
Not locally, @Kevin. For each $p$, $df_p$ is an isomorphism. Period.
Yes, @Meow?
 
yes
 
if i have the state $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}|H\rangle_1|H\rangle_2\pm e^{i\phi}|V\rangle_1|V\rangle_2$ how can i represent it as a vector with $|H\rangle, |V\rangle$ as my basis?
 
i realize the first part of why c is true (the first equality) but not the second
 
I leave this to @Semiclassic, as I have no idea what your subscripts mean.
 
12:34 AM
the state represents two entangled photons with the same polarization, if that's at all relevant.
 
are you missing some $\otimes$? What are $|H\rangle,|V\rangle$ in relation to $|H\rangle_1,|H\rangle_2,|V\rangle_1,|V\rangle_2$?
 
@TedShifrin 1 -> first photon, 2 -> second photon.
 
should be $\otimes$ between the H's and the V's, yeah
though in physics we typically are lazy and omit them
 
@anon $H$ is horizontal, $V$ vertical polarization, and subscripts are for the first and second photons.
@Semiclassical well, that'd explain why the paper i got this from didn't include them.
 
It's pretty cool, isn't it @Meow? The second = follows from the previous part, doesn't it?
 
12:35 AM
so what does the $\otimes$ mean there? inbetween the H's and V's?
 
OH
duh, am stupid
 
Thanks @TedShifrin. By the way are you experienced in cooking creole dishes? I'm trying out a chicken creole for the first time tonight.
 
I have done some, @Kevin, but it's not in my lists of expertise :)
 
$|H\rangle_1\otimes |H\rangle_2$
tensor product
 
Nice ... Make sure you make it spicy enough and use the holy trinity, @Kevin :)
 
12:36 AM
for some reason i didnt see the 2 on the second equality
 
oh @Meow. Reading was never your strong suit :P
 
@Semiclassical i know what $\otimes$ is i just don't understand why it needs to be there/what it represents.
 
Good question, @heather.
 
in this context it corresponds to the systems 1,2 being able to have states independent of one another
 
but their states aren't independent; they're entangled
 
12:39 AM
$|H\rangle_1\otimes|H\rangle_2+|V\rangle_1\otimes|V\rangle_2$ is entangled, sure
but it's a superposition of the states $|H\rangle_1\otimes |H\rangle_2$ and $|V\rangle_1\otimes |V\rangle_2$, and these are not entangled.
 
@heather Do you know that, in general, the tensor product is how you combine two quantum systems into a new system that has them both as subsystems?
 
One of the hints on my problem set says "Hint: work in local coordinates so that the function is of the form $f: \mathbb{R}^k \to \mathbb{R}$ and one can then think of $df: \mathbb{R}^k \to \mathbb{R}^k$" is this a clear typo and it should be $df: \mathbb{R}^k \to \mathbb{R}$? Or are we somehow padding things with 0s?
 
@ACuriousMind i know it's how you resize matrices (i.e., Hadamard from single qubit to multi qubit gate) so that makes some sort of sense.
@Semiclassical okay...? I think i see...i'm just not sure that answers my question then.
 
@Kevin: No, they're thinking of $df(x) = df_x$, interpreted as a row vector, hence in $\Bbb R^k$.
 
@heather I guess the proper reply is that your question didn't make a lot of sense: The way you wrote your state it is already expressed in terms of the $H,V$ basis.
 
12:42 AM
Officially, $df\colon\Bbb R^k \to L(\Bbb R^k,\Bbb R)$.
 
if the wavefunction of your system is of the factorizable form $|\psi\rangle_1 \otimes |\phi\rangle_2$, then that means that the first system is in state $\psi$ and your second is in state $\phi$.
 
@TedShifrin I don't know what you mean. There are examples of groups $G$ such that $G\times G$ may be written as a non-split extension of $G$ by $G$
 
there's no entanglement in that case: the specification of the state of system 1 is independent of that of system 2
it's once you start adding tensor products together that you have entanglement
 
@ACuriousMind okay, let me rephrase: i want to write it in component notation, not bra-ket.
in terms of the $H, V$ basis.
 
@Mathei: To TeX this is too much work right now, but I mean that $1\to H\to G\to K\to 1$ splits with $\beta\colon K\to G$ is equivalent to its splitting with $\alpha\colon G\to H$.
 
12:44 AM
ah. so if you write $|H\rangle = \binom{1}{0}$ and $|V\rangle = \binom{0}{1}$, you want to know what $|H\rangle_1\otimes |H\rangle_2$ looks like (and similarly for the other)
 
Yes, I'm sorry. that was poorly phrased.
 
@heather Uh...for that you'd just take the coefficients in front of the kets, no? That is, $(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2},0,0,\exp(\mathrm{i}\phi))$ if you order your basis as $|H\rangle_1 |H\rangle_2,|H\rangle_1 |V\rangle_2,|V\rangle_1 |H\rangle_2,|V\rangle_1 |V\rangle_2$.
 
oh...i see...
 
in terms of linear algebra, $\otimes$ is just the Kronecker product
 
@Ted You're thinking about the module case, that's not true if we're working with non-abelian groups. Consider $1 \to A_3 \to S_3 \to \Bbb{Z}/(2) \to 1$
 
12:46 AM
i feel like every time i see $\otimes$ it has a different meaning
 
@ACuriousMind, you would just do that, except i have no idea what i'm doing, generally. thank you.
 
Hmmm ... Of course I know it for the module case, but somehow I thought I had checked it for groups, too. Probably non-abelian creates issues.
 
Any map $S_3 \to A_3$ is trivial
 
So I need the condition that the cokernel embeds as a normal subgroup?
 
12:48 AM
so $\binom{1}{0}\otimes \binom{1}{0}=\begin{pmatrix} 1\binom{1}{0}\\ 0 \binom{1}{0}\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} 1\\0\\0\\0\end{pmatrix}$
 
has no idea what's going on with this physicists' version of $\otimes$
 
@heather I think you'd benefit from learning QM in the abstract before trying to use it for some particular application
 
It's just Kronecker product here
 
wow, some of spivak's exercises are extremely easy
well, trivial
 
@ACuriousMind yeah, i know
 
12:49 AM
Some, but as you go to later chapters, there are more and more challenging ones. Even some in the limits and derivatives chapters.
 
i don't know why i don't just buckle down and figure it out; it would make my life a heck of a lot easier.
 
one thing you can eyeball from this is that there's four such products that you can form, and these span the vector space. so you can describe any pair of photons as a superposition of factorizable states
 
It's so confusing when $2+2=2\cdot 2$. :D
 
@TedShifrin The rules is put $\otimes$ everywhere until the other people stop looking at you funny
 
@TedShifrin I can assure you it's really just the standard tensor product of vector spaces, but physicists are terrible at explaining it and some even tend to use the signs $\otimes,\oplus,\times$ seemingly at random at times to denote either of the operations ;)
 
12:51 AM
I doubt that works in a physics lecture, Kevin.
 
Everytime I see $\mathrm{SU}(2)\otimes\mathrm{SU}(3)$, I die a little inside
 
haha
 
Oh God thats not right either? We do tha tall the time.....
 
We don't want you dead, @ACuriousMind.
 
12:52 AM
@TedShifrin yes, that would be sufficient
 
Thanks for that, @Mathei. Instructional.
 
Splitting of the left map implies splitting of the right map in the non-abelian case, but not the other way around
 
@ACuriousMind so let's say that before that i perform an operation that produces that state, i have a single photon, 45 degrees from both horizontal and vertical, that is, i think $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|H\rangle+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|V\rangle$
 
@KevinDriscoll Nope, the product of groups the physicists mean is a direct product, and $\times$ is the proper sign for that.
 
I don't remember what the question was I answered on main recently, but this was relevant, @Mathei. I should look it up.
 
12:53 AM
would i just represent that as $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\end{bmatrix}$? or could i represent it as $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\\ 0\\ 0\\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\end{bmatrix}$?
 
@ACuriousMind: What's an extra circle amongst friends?
 
would you use $\otimes$ if you're tensoring reps of groups, though
 
Sure.
 
mmkay
 
Because the values are in vector spaces which you're tensoring.
 
12:54 AM
right
 
@Semiclassical Of course, because then you're actually tensoring the vector spaces
 
jinx
 
Well @TedShifrin as I proved the other day, $S^n, n > 1$ is simply connected, but $S^n \times S^1$ is not, so that extra circle can cause all sorts of problems.....
 
@ACuriousMind: I'm a horrible person.
 
12:55 AM
I also have vague memories of writing $\frac12 \otimes \frac12 = 1\oplus 0$ in the context of SU(2) stuff
I think Shankar does that.
 
I didn't tell you to take the product, did I, Kevin?
 
yeah, you need to consider $S^n\otimes S^1$
 
glares
 
You did not, but I make a habit of unintentionally misunderstanding your directions anyway
 
12:56 AM
I think it's more intentional, Kevin. Years of experience.
 
@TedShifrin $O(n)/SO(n) \cong \Bbb Z_2 \cong \langle -I_n \rangle$ We want their intersection to be $\langle I_n \rangle$, i.e. $-I_n \notin SO(n)$, i.e. $\det(-I_n) = (-1)^n \ne 1$, i.e. $n$ is odd.
 
@KevinDriscoll if you somehow understand resurgence theory in the next two weeks, lemme know so I can extract it from you
 
@heather The first. For the latter you'd need to actually have the state of a second particle/qubit/whatever written in your state, but what you wrote is just the state of one object.
 
okay
 
The subgroup needn't be generated by $-I_n$, @Leaky.
 
12:57 AM
You know I might if I could get anyone to do an example somewhere between 1D integrals and $N=4$ Super Yang Mills
 
Just some element of order $2$.
 
@Semiclassical There's no problem with that - you're decomposing the tensor product of representations into the direct sum of irreps.
 
@TedShifrin I see.
 
i thought i remember someone being annoyed at that notation but I don't remember why
 
12:58 AM
ugh, but then how the heck do you create a matrix to get from one to the other...ah, well, i'll figure it out.
thank you @ACuriousMind and @Semiclassical =)
i have to head off to bed.
 
@KevinDriscoll you and me both
 
Always a pleasure to see you, @heather!
Bed at 9 PM?
 
you as well @TedShifrin
bed from the computer anyway =P
 
LOL, take care :)
 
I mean, $\otimes$ is used for a general monoidal products all the time, and any category with finite products is monoidal with respect to the product bifunctor, so there's nothing inherently wrong with $SU(2) \otimes SU(3)$ :P
 
12:59 AM
throws up
It was nice having a brief civil conversation with Mathei.
 
I'm just kidding
 
i just realized
i wanna see what the function $\frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}$ looks like with varyng $h$
 
@MeowMix desmos is your friend
 
Yes, that's a reasonable thing to use technology for ... make a sequence with $h=1/n$.
 
Category theory has officially taken over everything if we're using it to explain notation now too
 
1:03 AM
I was having a discussion with a physicists who was talking about generators of a lie group and meant generators of the lie algebra. I was thinking about actual generators of the group, so I was really confused how an uncountable group could have a finite set of generators
 
"infinitessimal" generators. carrying on the legacy of Lie himself if I'm not mistaken.
 
Yup.
 
wow, that was boring
 
Except you s'd once too many.
 
for a quadratic its just a linear equation
 
1:05 AM
You shold see the way we try to teach that stuff to grad students with on a few weeks of group theory, no algebra or differential topology or anything. It isnt pretty.
 
Right, @Meow.
Try it for sin or cos.
 
uhh it looks like -x cos x
or something
 
Um, no.
 
i dont know
i mean i can work it out
but it looks like -cos x that dwindles over time
 
1:07 AM
It's actually instructional to write out the addition formulas for trig. But I thought you were making a movie with $g_n(x) = n(f(x+1/n)-f(x))$.
 
i made a graph
oh i could do that
one sec
 
But superimpose the graphs as $n$ gets bigger.
Or make a movie :)
 
Close Encounters of the 1/nth Kind
 
When are you sending me that creole chicken, Kevin? :)
 
did you know
my favorite number is 6,502
 
1:09 AM
um, no, and nor do I care
 
excuse ME
 
Kasmir already found out I'm mean today.
 
i thought we were friends
 
fun fact: for a long time I found the number 625 randomly creepy
 
Well, Id estimate it needs to stew for 30 minutes or so, then it'll probably be 2 or 3 days shipping to CA
 
1:10 AM
LOL, OK, Kevin :)
 
I think it started when I was studying a project on the death penalty in middle school and 625 was the number of executions past a certain point or something
and then I started feeling like i'd see it everywhere
 
So you dislike perfect squares associated to 5, @Semiclassic.
 
and decimal expansions of 1/2^n, yeah
 
did you know that colorado rhymes with hollaback girl
 
I feel a bad joke coming on
 
1:12 AM
Well, I'm outta here for now. Night!
 
it has already come on
 
Cya Ted
@TedShifrin OH I finally got it! You mean for every $x \in \mathbb{R}^k$ we associate to it the differential at that point $df_x \in L(\mathbb{R}^k, \mathbb{R})$.
 
Help.
Idk how to do this :/
I know how to convert to parametric, just not how to set the starting location
 
@10Replies Well if you plug in $t=0$ into your previous answer, what point do you get?
and similarly if you plug in $t=2\pi$?
 
4,1...
I get 14, 1 when I plug in zero
 
1:26 AM
And what about $2 \pi$?
 
Not 14,1...
 
Right, so there's a problem there. Your parameterization has to have $x(0) = x(2\pi)$ and similarly for $y$
 
How do I do that?
 
What function so you know of that satisfies $f(0) = f(2 \pi)$?
 
sin(x), cos(x)
 
1:28 AM
Bingo. So can you see a way to work $sin$ or $cos$ into your parameterization?
 
uh, no...
 
I would see it geometrically instead @KevinDriscoll
the circle is centred at (4,1) with radius 10
 
oh, can I apply a rotation with sin and cos?
 
You're on the right track
 
@10Replies wait, I'm drawing it
 
1:32 AM
have you ever seen the unit circle parametrized with cos and sin @10Replies ?
 
x=cos(t) y =sin(t)
 
yes
what about a circle centered at the orign with radius $r$?
 
x=cos(t)r y=sin(t)r
 
usually r goes before the trig function, but yes
so the radius is 10
10 cos t, 10 sin t
 
1:34 AM
this is the geometric intuition behind the parametrization
can you find the two question marks?
 
then all the points are moved 4 to the right, so you add 4 to x
and add 1 to y since theyre moved 1 up
 
that makes sense
 
10 cos t + 4, 10 sin t + 1
sorry @LeakyNun
 
@MeowMix lol
 
@10Replies You can check that if we set $x(t) = 10 \cos{t} +4$ and then use the equation for the circle you are given, the other guys pops out
 
1:44 AM
How can I make it travel in the opposite direction now?
oh. Rip. It also needs to start at (4,11)
thats why I got it wrong
 
Well starting at a different place is easy
 
+pi/2
 
Bingo. Sin starts decreasing at pi/2
 
Now it wants a half circle... starting at 14,1 traveling in the opposite direction...
 
I would have also accepted sending t to -t
that would reverse the direction here as well
 
1:49 AM
It says just changing the "t"s to "-t"s is wrong for the half circle one
 
Well if it takes t going from 0 to 2pi to get the full circle, how much do you need for a half circle
I mean t to -t just for changing the direction
 
0, pi
 
Oh but do they still want t to go from 0 to 2 pi?
 
yeh
oh can I just devide t by two?
 
Absolutely
 
1:50 AM
woot.
many thank
 
no problem
 
 
1 hour later…
2:56 AM
what do this mean and how do I solve it?
I already have dy/dx = (54*e^(6t-6))/(9*t^2+10*t+7)
and how is there an equation at a point?
 
uhh
are you sure thats the right image
 
yeah...
nope
 
also
anyways i assume your derivative is correct
yeah looks right to me
so you have dy/dx, thats the slope of your line
and you plug in x(t) and y(t) to get the point (x(t), y(t)) (here t = 1)
so that gives you a point on the line
and from there you know from middle school how to make a line given a slope and a point on the line ;)
oh also you wanna plug in dy/dx(t) to get the slope (t = 1 again)
 
ohh... I'm in the calculus mindset... not the middle school math mindset lol.
 
yeah, past finding the derivative and plugging in, its all just a line :)
 
 
1 hour later…
4:30 AM
[Philosophy of mathematics]
Exploring the nature of mathematics beyond formal languages:
in Logic, 1 min ago, by Secret
But then how is that differ from informal reasoning or philosophy. Under the context of informal mathematics, what actions and reasoning will be constitute as "mathematical"?
 
4:50 AM
[Random]
 
5:18 AM
[diRandom]
[triRandom]
What is random: It is probabilistic
for there are deterministic things that simply follow no reason nor (much) pattern such as chaotic processes
and there are things that are simply unpredictable and nonrandom
and of course at the very far end of the spectrum, there are unknown unknowns, those we don't even know how to discuss because we simply don't know anyting about them, and we don't even know that we don't know (they are nonexistent in our views and reasoning)
 
Hi! Anyone knows why user our valued user Bill Dubuque's account was suspended?
His account is currently named "Number"...
 
5:45 AM
Can anyone give an example of a compact separable topological space which is not metrizable
Except the cofinite topology because cofinite topology with finite set satisfies this
 
Trivial topology on a two elements set should work
 
what about a nontrivial one, I am suspecting some form of lower or upper limit topology may work...
o wait, that is not separable...
nvm
 
Actually I was trying to prove that the unit closed ball in weak* topology is metrizable iff the normed linear space is separable.
 
Did you try searching in the pi-base?
 
One point compactification of $\Bbb Q$ should also work
 
5:51 AM
So for the converse part if we can prove that in weak* topology compactness & separability implies metrizability then we will done
 
If I ask for examples of compact Hausdorff separable and non-metrizable spaces I get this list.
 
Every space can be turned into a separable one adding a single point so there are plenty of examples of separable compact spaces that are not metrizable
 
lolololol:
https://topology.jdabbs.com/spaces?q=not%20t_0%20%2B%20not%20t_1%20%2B%20not%20t_2%20%2B%20not%20t_4%20%2B%20not%20t_5%20%2B%20not%20t_6%20%2B%20not%20hausedoff
putting anymore t s however gives zero results
Actually, what is the most wild topology in pi base...
 
Hey there everybody!
 
5:59 AM
How's everything going?
 

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