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user174558
00:12
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ I am in the 200 club.
Nice to see @JasperLoy
:)
user174558
There is so much math we will never finish studying it in one life.
Indeed.
user174558
Yet people can say 'Oh your degree in math takes 3 years. Is there so much to study in math?' ROFLMAO.
user174558
I wonder why people don't say the same for medicine, for example.
user174558
00:18
@skillpatrol You should call yourself Ski/ull Pa/etrol.
I don't think / is allowed.
user174558
I am a bit pissed with math books which omit too many proofs.
user174558
It is OK to state a few theorems without proofs, at the advanced levels.
user174558
But it is not OK if there are too many.
user174558
Then there really is no point reading the book.
00:20
Left as an exercise for the reader?
user174558
Not referring to that.
user174558
More of 'beyond the scope'.
user174558
Maybe around 5 is OK. But 10 is too much.
Look for a better book.
user174558
00:23
My favourite calculus book is now Kaplan/Lewis.
user174558
That is because it has a beautiful chapter on the elementary transcendental functions.
user174558
Something you don't find treated rigorously in most calculus/analysis books.
user174558
If there is a book on calculus of variations, and you can't even prove that the shortest distance between 2 points is the straight line, then that is sad.
user174558
Perhaps that is what math books today have become.
user174558
Developing lots of machinery but in the end leading to nothing of real significance.
00:27
I gotta run @JasperLoy nice seeing you :)
user174558
@skillpatrol See you pal.
01:46
hello
can somebody please help me with this system?
$x^2 = yz$
$y + z = 29$
$x,y,z \in \mathbb{N}$
The main goal is to find $x$
02:22
Hi @Ted.
@Chinatsu-creepy-chan So for what positive integers $y$ up to 28 is $y(29-y)$ a perfect square?
Hi @MikeM
hi
Can someone explain how the solution gets $26460$?
@TedShifrin ugh, idk :c. i tried using the fermat's little (lesser?) theorem and i was reading about quadratic residue
Way too fancy. Just write down numbers or think about how a product of two integers can be a perfect square.
Aw c'mon. I didn't think of that in the test. 4 and 25.
but alright, what if i need a solution without trial and error?
02:33
Don't be mad at me! :)
Think about prime factorization? Note 29 is prime.
@TedShifrin sry, i'm not mad at you. i'm mad at me cuz i didn't finish this one in the math olympiad.
@TedShifrin yup. what about it? i thinked on it... nothing came out of it D:
You can conclude that both $y$ and $29-y$ must be perfect squares.
@TedShifrin Someone asked a question about Hodge theory on semi-Riemannian manifolds. I told them that at least the standard theory of the Laplacian etc fails miserably (it's not elliptic!) But do you know a way in which people have salvaged it? Perhaps in the Lorentzian setting on a manifold with cylindrical timelike ends, or something?
yes, yes. I thinked on it but... I want a deterministic way. :p
no clue, Mike ...
02:36
btw @ted thank you so much!
it was just a dumb thing i didn't even realize... if i had taken the "boring" way i would have found it so easily...
If not, to have a perfect square, a prime factor of $y$ would also have to be a factor of $29-y$. Can that happen?
no.
i thought about that - different parities
that's not good enough
@TedShifrin Found an authoritative answer by Willie Wong (who else?)
Cool ... I would have asked Rafe Mazzeo. What's Willie's answer?
02:43
oops, oops. i didn't get the perfect square part. i knew that the parities were different but my model was (y,z) = (k²n, n) where k is even and n is odd
so yz would be a perfect square
Important here that 29 is itself prime.
@TedShifrin "Jesus, absolutely not. What were ya thinkin?"
To you?
@TedShifrin i don't get it. should it say that if y + z = 29 then y and z are perfect squares? D:
Reread what I've written.
02:50
Hey guys, not sure how to show that $\| \int_{a}^{b} f \| \leq \int_a^b \|f\|$ for $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R^n}$, $\|\cdot \|$ is the standard euclidean norm. Any ideas please?
One way is triangle inequality with Riemann sums.
@TedShifrin sorry, i cant get why there's no factor of y in 29 - y :/
Oh. Modular arithmetic shows why. Ok, fine.
Can a prime $p$ Divide both $y$ and $29-y$?
@TedShifrin Nah. This answer
Yeah, that's what I thought about. y = 29 - y = 0 (mod p) -> 29 = 0 (mod p) so p = 29.
02:55
Ok, sure.
if there was, y or z would have to be 0.
This part is ok. But I don't get how you got the perfect squares.
They could possibly be primes between then. Like 3x5 and 2x7
(yeah, I know the sum isn't 29, just example)
Why do z and y have to be perfect squares?
There's no actual theorem of proof, idk u.u
If $y$ and $z$ aren't both perfect squares, every non-square factor of $y$ must also appear in $z$.
03:00
when the chrome was thick and the women were straight
How else is the product a perfect square?
Oh...........
Boy, that is really smart.
:P
What if I wanted to find these pairs without "brute force"?
Any theorem, rule, algorithm?
Factorization in the Gaussian integers gives you the ways of writing 29 as a sum of squares.
@TedShifrin $(5-2i)(5+2i)$?
03:07
But the problem is
how do you factorize $29$?
Because 29 is prime, there's only one solution essentially.
You just did.
@TedShifrin Yeah, but that is because I already know how to write 29 as a sum of squares
but how would a factorization algorithm look like?
I don't know the answer.
Alright.
You need to draw a circle of radius $\sqrt{29}$ and look for integer points on it.
03:13
That is essentially equivalent to expressing it as a sum of squares
and it only applies to factorization of the kind of $(5+2i)(5-2i)$
How would you factorize $5+2i$, for example?
Sure. There are also formulas for Pythagorean triples.
Sure.
$5+2i$ is prime because the square of its length is prime and square length is multiplicative.
Oh, right
So polar form is clearer in this context
$$(r_1e^{i\theta_1})(r_2e^{i\theta_2})=(r_1r_2)e^{i(\theta_1+\theta_2)}$$
03:36
1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 28, 30, 32, 36, 40, 42, 44, 46, 48, 52, 54, 56, 58, 60, 64, 66, 70, 72, 78, 80, 82, 84, 88, 92, 96, 100, 102, 104, 106, 108, 110, 112, 116, 120, 126, 128, 130, 132, 136, 138, 140, 144, 148, 150, 156, 160, 162, 164, 166, 168, 172, 176, 178, 180, 184, 190, 192, 196, 198, 200, 204, 208, 210, 212, 216, 220, 222, 224, 226, 228, 232, 238, 240, 250, 252, 256, 260, 262, 264, 268, 270, 272, 276, 280, 282, 288, 292, 294, 296, 300
What do these numbers have in common?
@TedShifrin Thanks for the reply.
I was hoping for a more direct way though. I thought about minkowski's or holder's inequality, but I can't think of a way to use them.

Guys, any ideas on showing $\| \int_{a}^{b} f \| \leq \int_a^b \|f\|$ for $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R^n}$, $\|\cdot \|$ is the standard euclidean norm. , in some direct way?
04:22
is anybody hererererereer
@LeakyNun i cannot figure out the pattern
@ForeverMozart It's the image of the totient function
ugh, I thought it was a simple pattern you could figure out
i'm baking some biscuits
and watching cape fear
@how is your Friday?
@BalarkaSen
04:38
I'm seriously ill.
mentally or physically?
those^ are not mutually exclusive :P
how serious? @BalarkaSen
I don't know. I have a fever, which I think classifies as physical illness. So physical, mostly.
drink some nyquil
advil pm is good too
04:42
see a doctor
if you have no other symptoms, its probably just a virus and you can treat it
@Skull: Done so.
It's bacterial. On a couple antibiotics.
then you will be better in 2 days
watch netflix or something
05:22
@BalarkaSen be sure to completely finish your antibiotic prescription even if you feel better. A lot of people make the mistake of not finishing the prescription and get ill again. Get plenty of rest.
2
 
2 hours later…
user174558
07:47
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ Thank you Dr Skull for the timeless advice.
user174558
07:58
There are several definitions of computability but I cannot find any book giving complete proofs that they are all equivalent. The book by Boolos at least shows the equivalence between 3 definitions. Is there a better source, or does one have to resort to reading the research papers themselves?
user174558
@huy You look very young.
user174558
@TedShifrin Speaking of Pythagorean triples, very few number theory books mention the fact that the radius of a circle inscribed in a Pythagorean triangle is an integer. This is something I found truly remarkable!
08:37
@JasperLoy :D
 
2 hours later…
Huy
Huy
10:52
@JasperLoy so do you
user174558
11:11
@AlexClark I think I found a proof of Chern-Gauss-Bonnet in Spivak Vol 5. Maybe one day I will get all 5 volumes.
user174558
11:27
Does anyone know the difference between Matsumura's Commutative Algebra and Matsumura's Commutative Ring Theory? I am wondering why they are two separate books.
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ Thanks. I have had to be online less frequently recently, so the progress is slow.
 
1 hour later…
user174558
12:36
@robjohn Hey there! I am still alive!
13:13
Hello people, if anyone is very enthusiastic about probability problems, do you mind having a look at my question on Maths SE. It didn't get any answers or hints. I hope its okay to post here once, and am not breaking any rules. Thanks a lot. math.stackexchange.com/questions/1829413/…
 
1 hour later…
14:24
Still stuck on the following problem : Let $f:\Bbb{R}^2\to \Bbb{R}^2$ be a $1-$Lipschitz function, how can I prove, the $n-$th iterated function noted as $f^n$, that $f^n/n$ converges.
@Semiclassical you there?
Roughly, what is the condition that 1/a1 + 1/a2 + ... converge?
I'm guessing f(n) > O(n^2) [informal notation]
Why does electromagnetic induction actually happen? By that I mean to say that I know magnetism takes place due to moving charges. So if i bring a magnet close to a conducting loop in the magnet's reference frame yes the loop is moving and hence it would produce a magnetic field but this is in with respect to the magnet moving but magnetism is a global phenomenon which takes place in thus experiment. I do not get how magnetic field is produced in thus case @Semiclassical
@Albas relativity.
It is possible to derive the magnetic formulae with coulomb's law and lorentz transformation.
14:43
@albas there's a fairly concrete version of this, namely the question of what happens when a magnet moves through a coil of wire
if you take the perspective of the magnet, then: there's a static magnetic field and the coil is moving. consequently the electrons in the coil are moving at some speed perpendicular to the magnetic field, and therefore the Lorentz force will cause the electrons to circulate creating a current
Does that perspective make sense?
Oh. That kind of makes sense... Actually that makes beautiful sense@Semiclassical
mmkay. now, suppose we take the perspective of the coil. then it's at rest, and the magnet is moving. hence the magnetic field will change over time.
here we seem to run into a quandary. the charges in the coil start at rest, and a magnetic field only acts on moving charges. so how can a current be generated?
Yes. Same problem I am facing
the only way it can be generated is if, somehow, an electric field is also present.
Yes
14:55
and the only thing that can generate that is the changing magnetic field.
and that's precisely the idea of electromagnetic induction: a time-varying magnetic field generates an electric field.
But why doesn't a constant magnetic field also do the job?
And here is where I realize I left out a part of the story I usually give when I do the first perspective.
One which is kind've important right at the moment.
Due to the constant magnetic field there will be a force acting and wouldn't that cause the charges to move
What is it?
keep in mind, a magnetic field can't make things start moving.
all it can do is make stuff circulate.
it changes the direction of moving charges, but it can't get them to start moving.
but, back to the first perspective for a moment.
Okay.
14:59
okay. Going back to the 'magnet at rest' scenario for a bit, suppose we go to the moment where the coil is at the center of the picture
the electrons in the coil are all moving straight down. But what direction is the magnetic field in that case?
I am having a hard time resisting the temptation to bring up ICP and their thoughts on magnets... ;)
lol. it's too bad they didn't say "F***ing magnets, how do they do work?"
because that's actually an interesting question :p
Opposite to the direction of the magnetic field produced by the bar magnet
sure. in other words, the magnetic field experienced by the electrons in the coil would be straight down as well
@TedShifrin One love! <3
15:04
yeah, but they wouldn't want to talk to a scientist, lying and getting them pissed and whatnot
@Semiclassical Quick question: in my view, when the two currents are travelling in the same directions, both the electrons and the nuclei should repel each other, then why do they not?
what two currents?
let's say I have two metal wires
and I generate a current inside them
Yes correct @Semiclassical
such that they travel in the same direction
15:05
@leakynun work out your question, and i'll come back to it once I'm done with albas
Howdy @MikeMiller
ok, thanks
@albas but that means that, when the coil in the middle of the magnet, there won't be a Lorentz force acting on the electrons. there can't, because the electrons would be moving in the same direction as the magnet's field.
so that means that, when the coil is at the very center of the magnet, we don't expect to see a current.
now, suppose we instead look at when the coil is at the 'top' of the magnet---say, where the magnetic field points horizontal and outward.
15:08
what are you up to today
in that case, we do get a Lorentz force as I said earlier and we do get a current. conversely, if you go to the bottom of the magnet, the magnetic field points horizontal and inward. so we again get a Lorentz force and a current, but now opposite to what it was at the top.
$\displaystyle\sum_{r=0}^\infty\dbinom{2r}{r}=\frac{36+2\sqrt{3}\pi}{27}$
and if we go to when the coil is far away from the magnet, then the field lines all point vertically upward and so no current is generated.
i was productive this morning, preparing seminar talks i need to hold in 3-4 weeks. now i should be working on my thesis...
what're you up to?
that means that the only times when we get a current are when the coil is in the vicinity or the top or bottom of the magnet, and the two scenarios produce opposite currents. right?
15:10
Ahh... Correct
it's alternating between beautiful and sunny weather and the-world-is-ending rain storms here
spent yesterday trying to read some homotopy theory I didn't understand. it spooked me. so now I'm reading something more down to earth by my advisor before I go back into spooky territory again
@iwriteonbananas That can't be good; you'll get moldy bananas that way. ;)
If we now translate this to the 'coil at rest' scenario, this tells us that the only times when we get an electric field (and therefore an electric current) are when the magnet's field is changing
modern homotopy theory is a spooky field
15:12
in other words, it's the time-varying nature of the magnetic field that gives rise to the electric field. and that's induction
@J.M. all my bananas are rotten already. i've had these since the 50's. i live in an underground bunker which was built for the case of nuclear war
2
apparently the only way to define certain flavors of equivariant homology is to understand spectra a little, so i gotta work on that.
Yes I am starting to get it now
but jumping into something May wrote is a hell of a start
here it's a heat wave
not as bad as it is where I grew up, but still nasty hot for LA
It's not that hot up here (MN) but just kind've stuffy
15:14
i find anything by May terribly difficult to read
it'll be 97 on Monday
@iwriteonbananas I think I'm going to try to assemble the ideas from elsewhere and get someone who's good with spectra to brave the book with me
did you grow up in death valley?
97 is for LA. I grew up in the Coachella valley, which is another desert
121 on Monday there
Just read a lot of stuff by April first. After all, April showers bring May flowers.
gets hit by a moldy banana
jesus that's intense
15:15
you do not go outside much
or you die
whichever you prefer
i read something about spectra the other day. there's a little something in chapter 5 of hatcher
Spectra of what kinds of operators?
different kind of spectra
i'm find with spectra of linear operators :) a spectrum in the context of homotopy theory is a way of assembling the idea of a "stable homotopy type" into a coherent idea
15:17
starts on page 583
right
is spectrum in the homotopy context a generalization of the operator notion, or just a different thing altogether?
like if you think $M$ and $N$ should be equivalent if $\Sigma^k M \simeq \Sigma^k N$ for some large $k$ ($\Sigma$ is suspension - take two cones on $M$ and glue them together along the bases), then you work "stably"
a spectrum is a generalization of that idea, and afaict has literally nothing to do with any other use of the word spectrum I know
eg spectral sequence, which has nothing to do with either of these
@Semiclassical can you suggest me any mathematically rigorous book on induction. My book doesn't talk much about it
not off the top of my head, I'm afraid. You should note, though, that none of the stuff I've said above was particularly 'rigorous.'
15:19
i read something about where the terminology 'spectral sequence' comes from a couple weeks ago...i'll try to find it
as a nontrivial example of stable equivalence, the "Poincare homology sphere" $SO(3)/I$, where $I$ is the isometry group of the icosahedron, has $\Sigma^2 P = S^5$
so even though this space is interestingly different from $S^3$, they're "stably" equivalent
"A question that often comes up is where the term
“spectral” comes from. The adjective is due to
Leray, but he apparently never published an explanation
of why he chose the word. John McCleary
(personal communication) and others have speculated
that since Leray was an analyst, he may have
viewed the data in each term of a spectral sequence
as playing a role that the eigenvalues, revealed one
at a time, have for an operator. If any reader has
better information, I would be glad to hear it."
@Albas Anyhow, what this establishes is that if the two reference frames for the conductor-magnet system are to be two descriptions of the same experimental outcome, then we need to have electromagnetic induction for sake of consistency.
interesting
Now, here's something kind've amusing. @albas
15:21
@MikeMiller that's cool, i didn't know that twice suspending that thing gives a sphere
anyway, when you work stably, you invert a lot of the usual complications when doing homotopy theory. so people like to work stably. (this is why people talk a lot about 'stable homotopy groups of spheres' - we're better at calculating those than the unstable ones!)
replace that by any homology sphere and it works
really?
what about once suspending?
@albas the first paragraph of the introduction here summarizes the above discussion
"double suspension theorem". i don't know how to prove it.
15:22
Would anyone tell me roughly how this is proved?
$\displaystyle\sum_{r=0}^\infty\dbinom{2r}{r}=\frac{36+2\sqrt{3}\pi}{27}$
@iwriteonbananas i emailed tim chow about that once
@iwriteonbananas up to homotopy you only need to do it once, since $\Sigma M$ will have the homology of the sphere one dimension up, and be simply connected, so get a map $S^{k+1} \to \Sigma M$ by using Hurewicz; it's necessarily a homotopy equivalence.
read that paragraph first, then scroll up to the top and look at the title/author :)
But $\Sigma M$ is never a manifold when $M$ is a manifold unless $M$ is a sphere, so it's not homeomorphic.
@BalarkaSen en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tim_Chow ? Why did you email a soccer player about something like that?
15:24
different person
The double suspension construction was the first place anybody had constructed non-combinatorial triangulations (triangulations that don't come from a PL structure).
@MikeMiller I see...well, maybe not quite. where do we get that map from again?
$\pi_{k+1}(\Sigma M) = H_{k+1}(\Sigma M) = H_k(M) = \Bbb Z$
i don't remember what he replied back with.
The punchline being, that very example of two descriptions of a conductor-magnet system was used by Albert Einstein as a motivating example in the paper he wrote introducing Special Relativity to the world :)
15:26
Ah of course
and the fact that it's a htp equivalence comes from whitehead's thm?
I guess it's not obvious to me why the map is degree 1, actually
If we have that then we get it from Whitehead's
@Semiclassical I am so happy to see finally some consistency in these few days
15:27
Yeah. And what I find really funny is that that very example of 'consistency' is something that Einstein cited in his discovery of special relativity.
I don't remember what the Hurewicz isomorphism does. Sends a map S^k --> X to the homology class of the singular cycle it represents in X?
sends $[f:S^k\to X]$ to $f_*([S^k])$
That's exactly what I asked :) OK.
oh, right
lol, which also makes it obvious that the map is degree 1. my b.
15:33
@Semiclassical Sorry for bothering, but could you answer my question?
state the question, and i'll see what i can do
good to know fever didn't screw my mind up.
but in any case you can see why stabilization is a homotopically valuable tool; for a homology sphere, the fundamental group is the only 'obvious' difference between it and the sphere. stabilization makes them the same.
29 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@Semiclassical Quick question: in my view, when the two currents are travelling in the same directions, both the electrons and the nuclei should repel each other, then why do they not?
You started saying the question, but you really didn't finish.
15:35
Well, let's say there are two metal wires perpendicular to each other
and I generate currents in them to the same direction
Then, the electrons are moving, so the electron density is higher than the nucleus density
so a negative charge is generated
so they will repel each other
right?
that's true
stabilization is kewl
hmm. the currents will also produce magnetic fields.
@LeakyNun *parallel
how I think of spectra, not knowing much about them, is what represents a (extraordinary) cohomology theory.
probably a wrong-headed way to think of them.
you'll need to teach me about stabilization at some point, Mike
15:38
It is rarely useful to have precisely one perspective on an object. To only think of them as stable homotopy types and not at all as representing cohomology theories would also be unhelpful.
I just did!
and if memory serves, those induced magnetic fields will cause those two loops to attract one another @albas
agreed.
well, true...but i mean you should fly to my country and organize a bootcamp on stabilization for me
more generally, two parallel wires will attract one another due to the magnetic fields they produce
like i know shit about it
15:40
haha
Either that or produce a Skype bootcamp :p
i'm busy with this, which apparently explains flavors of equivariant homology in a way poor li'l me will understand
I got interested in the word 'equivariant' at one point when the phrase 'Duistermaat-Heckman formula' started showing up in places
I entirely failed at understanding it.
Yesterday I posted here a picture of Ramanujan and there was no star (doing it three times).
equivariant just means upto a group action.
15:42
that seems like you think you just mod out and go on your way? the word you wanted there means "respecting" a group action
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 you say 'with Ramanujan' .. yet I see a single person in this picture ... (unless you have your image hidden via steg .. :P )
looks fun, mike
ah, you're right. "respecting" is better wording.
@r9m OK, of ... Does it seem to me or you are in a bad mood? :-)
mostly because the DH formula seems to give examples where semiclassical approximations would be exact.
15:44
@r9m hehe, not really ;)
Thinking to ask some question on main ...
localization theorems are nice but I don't really understand the yoga yet
But it was in the context of a certain spin system, which meant that the semiclassical phase space would be the surface of a sphere (or something like that, i forget details)
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 I am in a 'troll' mood :P
and so the group action would have to do with that. somehow.
I really never understood it, though.
Hi guys
15:45
@r9m why don't you star the picture of Ramanujan? :-) Just a little star ... :D
@iwriteonbananas it's eminently readable
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 *ed
So I know that if you look at the Bruhat order as a geometric structure, you get the permutohedron, and if you look at the Tamari lattice as a geometric structure, you get the associahedron: is it possible to look at any (bounded, finite) poset as a geometric structure in an analogous way?
i googled why the double suspension theorem was true. this stuff is intense.
@r9m GREAT!:-)
15:47
i don't know what localization is but reading the subsection "localization of spaces" in chapter 5 is on my bucket list. think i'll need that to say something about torsion subgroups of $\pi_k(S^n)$
@BalarkaSen that thing seems terribly formatted
@MikeMiller I remember trying to read this paper and just failing :P
@iwriteonbananas We're talking different types of localization. Localization in equivariant homology says something like "If you invert the action of $H^*(BG)$ on $H^*_G(X)$, then you just get the equivariant cohomology of the fixed point set $H^*_G(X^{fix})$"
250 pages nope nop enope
Mostly because the idea of path integrals which could be computed exactly sounded pretty nice.
@iwriteonbananas it is
15:49
okay, i see
the length of that paper didn't help matters either, no
I wanted to read this but was also spooked by length
yeah, that's a bit much
though there are bits in the one i cited which you'd probably like, or at least appreciate
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 nice problem here (+1) :) Didn't see it until now ..
e.g. section 3.5, where they talk about the height function on a Riemann surface as an example of equivariant localization
15:52
@r9m hehe, thanks! That one is an inequality I love a huge lot! Very, very nice. Do you have in mind some different approach? I'm curious about anything else possible there.
I assume you mean on the Riemann sphere?
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 am thinking about it now :)
@r9m Without a careful approach it is painful - it seemed to me so at the beginning.
(referring to getting some very elementary way)
well, they titled it with 'Riemann surface' in general.
looks like they pointed out my complaint on p51: there's no circle action on a higher genus Riemann surface
15:55
but they spend the first part of it focusing on the sphere
right.
@MikeMiller Vafa?! :D
(famous physicist)
I know that. It's in the paper.
r9m
r9m
@user1618033 it's hard to think about something else .. :O my natural reaction would be to square both sides and then yea cauchy-schwarz and the usual telescopic upper bound .. just like Jack did :| .. what else we can do I wonder !! ^^'
anyways, there might be some stuff in there you would appreciate more than you'd expect.
alongside quite a lot of chaff, to be sure
probably a bit too long for me, unforch
looks like it would be a good place to learn some things
15:58
yeah.
a more condensed version of that would be nice
@r9m Yeap, agree.

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