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11:00 AM
Please someone comment on my attempt at solution
4
Q: Approximate spectral decomposition

Valery SaharovSee attempt below I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format. Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...

 
11:24 AM
@MikeMiller The irritating person from yesterday apparently defaced their question out of shame (?).
 
perhaps embarrassment (!)
 
11:57 AM
Can anyone please explain how I can prove that $\phi(f^{i} g^{j})=f^{2i}g^{j}$ is a homomorphism on $S_{3}$? ($\phi$ is a mapping from $S_{3}$ to $S_{3}$). I'm having no luck with it, any help will be appreciated.
If i take two different elements in $S_{3}$ should their powers be the same or different?
 
@Paradox101 First, you need to specify what $f$ and $g$ are. I assume a 3-cycle and a transposition?
 
12:13 PM
@TobiasKildetoft yes so if $S_{3}= {e,f,f^2,g,fg,f^2 g}$ then how should I take two elements from the group to prove homomorphism?
 
@Paradox101 You should take two arbitrary elements (i.e. not necessarily with the same powers) and check that the map sends their product to the product of their images
 
@TobiasKildetoft but it has to be two elements from $S_3$ right? So if I take $fg$ and $f^2 g$ i get $\phi((fg) (f^2 g))=(fg)^{2} f^{2}g$. Is this correct so far?
 
Hi I'm in senior high and math is just kicking my butt. Any tips?
 
@Paradox101 You need to first write the product in the given form to be able to apply the map
@Keith Kick back
 
Hah , can't see it's butt so :)
 
12:21 PM
@TobiasKildetoft can you clarify? In what given form?
 
@Paradox101 in the form $f^ig^j$ so you need to switch the order of $g$ and $f$ in your product, using the relations in the group
@Paradox101 I need to go now though.
 
@TobiasKildetoft like $\phi((f^2)(f^1)=(f)^{4} f^{2}g$?
oh ok
 
1:05 PM
morning chat
 
1:23 PM
It is well known that not all integrals are elementary (i.e. have closed forms in terms of elementary functions. But is there any study on the criteria need to be met in order to have an integral that has no closed form even in terms of special functions?
 
depends on the scope of what you mean by "special functions"
i mean, while mathematica isn't able to come up with an expression for that indefinite integral, that doesn't mean that none exists in the mathematical literature.
it could be in terms of something awful, like generalized confluent hypergeometric functions. but whether you admit that as a 'special function' is a matter of definition.
 
Is there really a convention in the literature on defining what expressions will form a special functions and not?

For example, the Riemman zeta is defined to be a series, and gamma functions are integrals
 
@skillpatrol yes , amongst other topics I'm taking calculus and have trouble getting a intuition of the topic. Any help would be great!x
 
i'd challenge the first of those. the series definition of the Riemann zeta function is useful along the positive real axis, but what you're usually interested in is its analytic continuation to the entire complex plane
 
Have to tried the khan academy @Keith
 
1:34 PM
Perhaps another way to ask that is: Why are elementary functions elementary. What property that they have that special functions don't have?

We know that whether an integral is involved does not necessary makes a function elementary, because ln(x) is defined as the integral of 1/x yet it is elementary
 
by contrast, the integral representation $$\zeta(s)=\frac{1}{\Gamma(s)} \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{s-1}}{e^x-1}\,dx$$ is well-adapted to analytic continuation
 
1:49 PM
@BalarkaSen Weird.
 
2:02 PM
@skillpatrol yes I'm an active user. However more advanced problems are solved in class and asked in the exams and I'm unable to cope. I couldn't cope well in 1st year and I'm not doing great in my second year. I used to love math but I just find it a little annoying now..
 
2:17 PM
hello,
how to find $$\int^{+R}_{-R}\sqrt{\dfrac{R^2}{R^2-x^2}}dx$$?
i know the procedure for finding indefinite integral of this but i don't know how to do this with limits, can anyone give me a glance so i can slove this?\
 
user147690
@TobiasKildetoft Thanks for that haha, great find/
 
@PVAL Relevant to our discussion yesterday is Jen and Tye's new paper...
 
Huy
2:32 PM
@ramsay: fundamental theorem?
 
but i am getting confused, i replaced $x$ by $rsinθ$ but i don't know what limits will become if i change dx to $rcosθdθ$
 
 
1 hour later…
3:34 PM
I have answered question about proving $(a \cdot b)^c = a^c \cdot b^c$ for cardinals a, b, c. I was surprised that I did not find a question about this already on math.SE. Maybe somebody with better searching skills can find a duplicate?
 
 
1 hour later…
4:49 PM
anything interesting today?
 
9
Q: How to find the element of the Digit Sum sequence efficiently?

sashaJust out of interest I tried to solve a problem from "Recent" category of Project Euler ( Digit Sum sequence ). But I am unable to think of a way to solve the problem efficiently. The problem is as follows ( in the original question sequence has two ones in beginning , but it does not change the...

 
@TobiasKildetoft I've been reading about this last night and this morning and am just starting to grasp how the surreals arise in this way-- very interesting! thanks again
 
@MikeMiller Cute proof of Bezout: take $X$ and $Y$ smooth algebraic curves in $\Bbb P^2$ defined by $f = 0, g = 0$. Let $g'$ be some other polynomial function, the same degree as $g$. $g/g'$ is a rational function on $X$, and sum order of vanishing of $g/g'$ at each $p \in X$ is $0$ (because # of poles = # of zeroes upto multiplicites on a smooth curve). So sum of order of vanishing of $g$ at each pt on $X$ - sum of order of vanishing of $g'$ at each pt on $X$ = 0.
Order of vanishing of $g$ at each pt on $X$ is precisely sum of intersection multiplicties of $X$ with $Y$ at each pt on the intersection $X \cap Y$.
This in particular means if $Y'$ is defined by $g' = 0$, sum of intersection multiplicities of $X$ with $Y$ = sum of intersection multiplicites with $X$ with $Y'$ (aka $Y$ and $Y'$ are homologous, in the topological story). So let $g = (aX + bY + cZ)^n$. Similarly for $X$ replace by $(pX + qY + rZ)^m$. Then # of intersections upto multiplicity is clearly $mn$.
 
5:06 PM
yes]
 
Nice translation of the topological proof, in my humble opinion. I like it.
 
9
Q: How to find the element of the Digit Sum sequence efficiently?

sashaJust out of interest I tried to solve a problem from "Recent" category of Project Euler ( Digit Sum sequence ). But I am unable to think of a way to solve the problem efficiently. The problem is as follows ( in the original question sequence has two ones in beginning , but it does not change the...

 
(also, nice proof of the fact that rational functions on complex algebraic curves has # of poles = # of zeroes upto multiplicity. Let $f$ be that rational function. Extend the codomain to $\Bbb P^1$, and make it regular (we're on curves, so no points at indeterminacy). Then # poles of $f$ = $\#f^{-1}(\infty)$. # of zeroes = $\#f^{-1}(0)$. Degree theory tells they are the same (there are no cancellations because everything is complex manifold hence orientable))
Hmm I am not quite sure if that addresses multiplicities.
 
degree theory says nothing without more care, because there's no reason that those are regular values
:)
 
Ah, you're correct.
 
5:13 PM
that's why you count with multiplicity... it's also why you need more input in your proof of Bezout than "the topological intersection number is mn"
not much more input, but input nonetheless
 
$\infty, 0$ must not be branched points of $f$ ($f$ is certainly a branched cover). So it doesn't count multiplicites.
I think.
 
the statement is still true if they're branch points...
 
Yeah, but the proof I said doesn't go through, right?
 
that's why you fix it
suppose the map is branched at zero. what, locally, does the map look like?
 
Well, it looks like $z \mapsto \prod (z - a_i)^{n_i}$. But I think that's not the answr you want. I don't know of a good way to describe the local structure.
 
5:21 PM
as far as i can tell you just said "it looks like a polynomial" and then wrote down the definition of a polynomial?
 
I suppose so. I am unsure how to fix it.
 
Hello @DanielFischer
We have $u(x,y)=\sqrt{|xy|}, \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{x}}=\frac{x y^2}{2 |xy|^{\frac{3}{2}}$ and $ \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{y}}=\frac{y x^2}{2 |xy|^{\frac{3}{2}}$. How can we show that $\frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{x}}(0,0)=\frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{y}}(0,0)$ although the partial derivatives are not defined at the point (0,0) ?
 
well, something for you to think about, i guess. if $f(0)=0$, what are the local models for $f$? (i can make this precise if necessary but surely you know what's meant here)
 
So, ideas: around $0$ I can choose a regular value $z$ by Sard's (or really, it's a polynomial, who cares). That has preimage number what we want. So multiplicty of a zero of $f$ should be the number of things which "coincide" with that zero when I perturb $z$ towards $0$. I need to rigorously think this through.
 
5:30 PM
this sounds like puiseux series stuff
 
@Semiclassical nothing so complicated...
@BalarkaSen answer my second question before you answer my first
 
@Evinda The partial derivatives are defined at $(0,0)$. Just plug in the definition of a partial derivative to compute them at the origin.
 
@BalarkaSen work holomorphically instead of algebraically. indeed, there's a local model for any holomorphic map with $f(0)=0$
perhaps that might help
 
@DanielFischer $\frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{x}}(0,0)=\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{u(0,h)-u(0,0)}{h}=\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{0-0}{h}=0$, right?
 
@Evinda It's $u(h,0)$ rather than $u(0,h)$ for $\partial u/\partial x$, but otherwise it's right.
 
5:47 PM
Oh yes, right... In the same way we get that $\frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{y}}(0,0)=0$, right?

We use the definition because, the derivative of $\sqrt{|xy|}$ is not defined for x=0 and y=0, right? @DanielFischer
 
This is for $u(x,y)=\sqrt{|xy|}$? (The MathJax in the above message does not render - at least for me.)
 
@MartinSleziak Yes
 
6:07 PM
Also I want to check if there is a tangent plane of u at the point (0,0).

The tangent plane of u at (0,0) is given by $z=u(0,0)+ \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{x}}(0,0)(x-0)+ \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{y}}(0,0)(y-0)$.

Since all of $u(0,0), \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{x}}(0,0), \frac{\partial{u}}{\partial{y}}(0,0)$ are defined, the tangent plane of u at (0,0) exists. Right? @DanielFischer
 
Depends on the definition of tangent plane. My definition of a tangent plane says the graph of $(x,y) \mapsto \sqrt{\lvert xy\rvert}$ doesn't have a tangent plane at the origin.
 
Which definition do you use? @DanielFischer
 
The usual one ;) Boils down to "the tangent plane to the graph of $f$ at $(a,f(a))$ exists if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $a$, and then it is the graph of $x \mapsto f(a) + Df\lvert_a(x-a)$".
 
6:25 PM
Can someone please check my attempt at solution?
4
Q: Approximate spectral decomposition

Valery SaharovSee attempt below I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format. Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...

 
6:43 PM
@MikeMiller I am so sorry, my laptop powered out.
 
Only be sorry if you don't think about the question :)
 
So, I don't know what local model should mean in the context of holomorphic maps. For algebraic maps, I think it should mean preimage of a small neighborhood of $0$ (the branch point we care about). I know what it "looks like": $0$ lifts to say $a_1, a_2, \cdots, a_k$. And if $a_i$ has multiplicity $n_i$ then near $a_i$ the restriction of the map looks like $z \mapsto z^{n_i}$ (i.e., $n_i$ points near $a_i$ branch onto $a_i$).
Of course I can ask for preimage of a small nbhd of $0$ in case of holomorphic maps too, but then the picture is not quite clear to me.
 
@DanielFischer Ah I see... Thank you!!!
 
lifts to?
i got no idea what you mean
 
I mean preimage of $0$ by $f$ comprise of $a_1, \cdots, a_k$. These are the zeroes of $f$.
 
6:55 PM
I don't care about those.
i just said $f(0)=0$. I only care about what the map looks like near the zero in the domain.
Look at each zero one at a time.
 
Ah, ok. Then it should look like $z \mapsto z^{n}$, where $n$ is the multiplicity of the zero $a$ of $f$ we are looking at, not?
 
Why?
 
Hmm, let me try to state this rigorously.
I only have a vague answer to the question as of now.
 
7:16 PM
So if $a$ has multiplicity $n$ as a zero of $f$, $f(z) = (z - a)^n g(z)$. Pick a neighborhood $B_a$ around $a$ small enough so that it contains no other zeroes, i.e., $|g| \neq 0$ on $B_a$. If $|g|$ was arbitrarily close to $0$ on $B_a$, then $g$ had to have a zero on $\text{cl} B_a$. Shrink $B_a$ further so it doesn't have any zeroes on the boundary either.
So $|g| \geq c$ for some nonzero real $c$ on $B_a$. Pick a $x$ near $0$ on the codomain so that $|x| < c$. Then $p^{-1}(x) \cap B_a$ would consist of solutions of $(z - a)^n = p$, as $g \neq p$ on $B_a$. So that should look like a map $z \mapsto z^n$ close to $p$, as a fiber of $f$ intersects a small nbhd of $a$ at $n$ points.
Let me check if that has any inconsistencies.
(Typo: there are a couple of $p$'s there which should have been $x$'s. Other than that, I don't see if I messed anything up)
Uh, maybe I did. My estimates are not right. $g \neq x$ on $B_a$ is not sufficient to guarantee solutions of $f = x$ do not come from $g$. But I am certain this can be fixed.
TL;DR I want to say on a small enough neighborhood of $a$, a fiber of $f$ over a point close to $a$ should consist of $n$ points (except at $a$ itself) where $n$ is the multiplicitly of $a$.
I guess I am not making sense. Maybe this is because I don't really understand what should be the meaning of "$f$ looks like $z \mapsto z^n$ near $a$". Upto homotopy?
 
7:46 PM
@MikeMiller Forget about the garbage I wrote above. If I have a map $f : X \to \Bbb P^1$ where $X$ is a smooth complex algebraic curve (so in particular a complex manifold), if $f(0) = 0$, I believe one can have charts on $X$ and charts on $\Bbb P^1$ at $0$ both so that $f(z) = z^n$. That's what "looks like" should really mean, I am sure.
$n$ here is the order of multiplicty of regular function $f$ at $0$.
Well, one really needs to replace $f$ by a holomorphic map here. Algebraic maps are holomorphic, of course but charts do not make too much sense if I only restrict to algebraic functions.
 
@robjohn hey! You should let here some integrals, series and limits once in a while because, the chat looks very messy. :-)
Let me fix that
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-x)\log(1-y)\log(1-z)\log(1-w)\log(1-t)\operatorname{Li}_2 (x y zw t)}{1-xy zw t} \ dx \ dy \ dz \ dw \ dt$$
 
8:03 PM
Just arrived in Israel!
 
Also an easier version though
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{\log(1-x)\log(1-y)\log(1-z)\log(1-w)\log‌​(1-t)\operatorname{Li}_2 (x y zw )}{1-xy zw} \ dx \ dy \ dz \ dw$$
 
@Akiva Is it just some casual trip, or what are you going to Israel for?
 
Holiday
Passover
 
Then, let's also consider these versions
 
Oh, and I forgot you're a Jew. Enjoy your time there!
 
8:04 PM
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-x)\log(1-y)\log(1-z)\log(1-w)\log(1-t)\operatorname{Li}_2 (x y zw t)}{1+xy zw t} \ dx \ dy \ dz \ dw \ dt$$
 
Thanks!
 
@BalarkaSen Of course not up to homotopy, that wrecks everything. What I mean is that you need to show that there is some open subset $U'$ of the origin so that you can precompose $f$ with some automorphism of that open set such that the resulting function is $z^n$.
 
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-x)\log(1-y)\log(1-z)\log(1-w)\operatorname{Li}_2 (x y zw)}{1+xy zw } \ dx \ dy \ dz \ dw $$
 
@MikeMiller Yeah, I just figured out we're really talking about charts here (right?).
 
8:05 PM
Sure, that's more or less the same thing I said.
There's a holomorphic chart in which the map is $z^n$.
What, literally, is a holomorphic map with $f(0)=0$?
Don't precompose with automorphisms or whatever.
 
$f(z) = z^ng(z)$ where $g$ is a nonvanishing holomorphic function on $0$, and $n$ is order of vanishing of $f$ at $0$ in $\Bbb C$.
 
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1 \left(\frac{\log(1-x)\log(1-y)\log(1-z)\log(1-w)\log(1-t)\operatorname{Li}_2 (x y zw t)}{1-xy zw t}\right)^2 \ dx \ dy \ dz \ dw \ dt$$
Let me find some series now
 
So cohomology essentially moves all torsion up a dimension?
For $\Bbb Z$ coefficients, at least.
 
Eh?
 
@BalarkaSen What is a nonvanishing holomorphic function?
Again, literally.
 
8:10 PM
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{H_n}{\binom{2n}{n}}\right)^2=?$$
 
I mean, when you compare homology to cohomology
 
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{H_n}{\binom{2n}{n}}\right)^3=?$$
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{H_n}{\binom{2n}{n}}\right)^4=?$$
 
@user1618033 Wow, good luck…
 
@MikeMiller Should be a biholomorphism onto image.
 
We should call this stuff not today :-)
 
8:11 PM
No, that's nonsense.
 
Locally, that's true, but that's neither what I asked nor a proof.
 
OK, now I feel better the chat looks nicer
 
Yup, locally. Sorry about that.
 
Out for some more work.
 
How would you prove that?
@BalarkaSen ...
 
8:19 PM
OK, probably that's not immediate to me (should it be?). I was thinking of polynomial maps, for which it is not true that they are globally biholomorphic, but they are locally so away from zeroes.
 
I'm trying to guide you there. You still haven't started out earlier.
What is a holomorphic map?
 
A holomorphic functions $\Bbb C \to \Bbb C$ is complex differentiable at every point. Not sure if it's the definition you're asking for.
 
It's a definition, but there's a more useful one for right now.
 
Having a convergent power series at every point. I think they're equivalent.
 
meh I gotta work
In mathematical analysis, the Lagrange inversion theorem, also known as the Lagrange–Bürmann formula, gives the Taylor series expansion of the inverse function of an analytic function. == Theorem statement == Suppose z is defined as a function of w by an equation of the form where f is analytic at a point a and f '(a) ≠ 0. Then it is possible to invert or solve the equation for w: on a neighbourhood of f(a), where g is analytic at the point f(a). This is also called reversion of series. The series expansion of g is given by The formula is also valid for formal power series and can be generalized...
 
8:24 PM
That's a complex analytic inverse function theorem?
 
that's the wrong link. the complex analytic inverse function theorem is a trivial corollary of the normal one
holomorphic functions are smooth, take a smooth inverse, use the formula $f(g(z)) = z$ to derive that $g$ is holomorphic
 
ah, alright.
 
anyway idk the name of this, it's proved in any good complex analysis book, but the local model for a holomorphic function is $z^n$
 
I think when a student asks me a question (especially about a definition), and I have a computer I am just going to google the definition in front of them to show them what they could have done instead of asking me even if I already knew the answer.
 
@MikeMiller Is it nontrivial to prove that?
 
8:30 PM
You didn't seem to be able to.
 
Well, most of the time I get stuck at things generally acknowledged as trivial, so.
 
So why did we start trying to do this? You wanted to compute the degree topologically.
What do you do when trying to compute degree/intersection number of a map when the point isn't generic?
 
Right.
I look at (intersection) multiplicities of that point.
 
topologically? Not likely
because intersection multiplicities don't make sense topologically...
 
Ah, topologically. Um.
Perturb it a bit? Make things transverse?
 
8:33 PM
yes
 
Homotope the map so that the value becomes regular?
 
so, let's perturb $z \mapsto z^n$
we're working locally to compute what the local degree is, so this is fine
how many zeroes does $z \mapsto z^n+\varepsilon$ have?
 
$n$ many.
 
and hence the local degree is $n$ at a zero of multiplicity $n$
 
Ah, OK. I see.
 
8:36 PM
which is how you make your previous proof, that number of zeroes = number of poles once you add multiplicity, work topologically
 
OK, now I understand. Thanks.
 
8:59 PM
@TobiasKildetoft Heya.
 
Taylor series are always continuous where convergent, right?
 
yes
 
Does that theorem have a name?
It doesn't seem immediately obvious, to be honest
Maybe I'm just not thinking about it the right way
 
@AkivaWeinberger Not necessarily a name. The theorem says "if $f_n$ is a series of continuous functions and $f_n\to f$ uniformly, $f$ is continuous.
 
And we get uniform convergence?
 
9:06 PM
A corollary if that if a series $\sum a_n z^n$ has a positive radius of convergence at a point, it is continuous where it converges.
 
Not on all of $\Bbb R$, I don't think
 
@AkivaWeinberger The radius can be infinite. So you can get all of the real line.
 
But we get uniform convergence on $\Bbb R$ if it converges there?
Or maybe just all compact subsets
 
@AkivaWeinberger No, just compact subsets.
 
We only need the latter to ensure continuity, I think
 
9:08 PM
Aha.
In fact that is the kind of convergence one looks for when one does complex analysis.
 
I'll have to think about how to show that we get uniform convergence
 
@AkivaWeinberger You have to use Abel's lemma.
By this I mean the following, @AkivaWeinberger.
Take a series $f(z) = \sum a_n z^n$, and assume that $f(z_0)$ converges absolutely, $|z_0|>0$.
First, I claim the series converges absolutely at $w$ if $0 < |w| < |z_0|$.
This is evident, right?
The next step is to show that the series converges uniformly on any closed ball of radius less than $|z_0|$.
For this you want Weiertrass' M-test if I recall correctly.
 
9:24 PM
Hello @PedroTamaroff
 
Have you studied fourier algebras
of locally compact groups @PedroTamaroff
 
I know a bit of Fourier theory, but just the basics.
What were you doing?
 
Okay, If you know what a left regular representation $\lambda$ of locally compact group $G$, then the Fourier algebra is the set of all coefficients of $\lambda$.
Do I make any sense ? @PedroTamaroff
 
So, $\lambda : G\to {\rm GL}(V)$?
 
9:29 PM
And here it is over $L^2(G)$
$\lambda(g)f(x) = f(g^{-1}x)$
 
Can you define "left regular representation"?
I don't think we're on the same page.
 
The definition is given above.
Take $V = L^2(G)$
 
Ah, OK.
So $G$ acts on $L^2(G)$ by translation?
 
Yes, left translation
 
9:36 PM
Now the coefficients are $\lambda_{u,v}$, where $\lambda_{u,v}(g) = \langle \lambda(g)u,v \rangle$
These are continuous functions. But these are indeed continuous functions vanishing at infinity.
First of all, I am interested in checking the same.
@PedroTamaroff Are you there ?
 
OK.
Checking what?
 
Why those are the functions vanishing at infinity
 
Ah.
You're saying "the" functions.
This is not the same as saying they are "functions vanishing at infinity."
 
Sorry, ignore "the"
 
When you say "vanishing at infinity", what do you mean?
 
9:46 PM
Outside every compact set of $G$, the function should tend to zero
 
Have you tried anything to prove it?
 
Hello @PedroTamaroff @Mambo
:)
 
It should be similar to how one proves the Riemann Lebesgue lemma, right?
(It is the Riemann Lebesgue lemma, in the particular case.)
 
I guess so, as these are actually convolutions
 
I cannot really check it myself now, but I'd draw some inspiration from that.
 
9:51 PM
But there actually Schwartz class was exploited
Why do you believe that it is the RL lemma
Oh yes it is the fourier transform of $f$ with respect to $\lambda$
No, it isn't @PedroTamaroff
@PedroTamaroff Are you there?
 
10:11 PM
Sorry, I am busy now.
 
This is great.
 
Is it?
 
@PedroTamaroff I couldn't see why it is a fourier transform?
 
Why what is a Fourier transform?=
 
For general locally compact $G$ ?
For locally compact abelian groups $G$, the character group $\widehat {G}$ is considered.
 
10:26 PM
@PedroTamaroff here
?
 
Then for $f \in L^1(G)$, the fourier transform $\widehat{f}(\phi) = \int_G f(g)\overline{\phi(g)}dg (\phi \in \widehat{G})$. @PedroTamaroff
 
10:37 PM
@PedroTamaroff For general locally compact groups, I don't know how a Fourier transform is defined.
@PedroTamaroff I am sorry if I am eating up your time.
 
Sorry, I'm not really reading now.
 
@PedroTamaroff Thank you
 
There's nothing to thank me for. =)
 
@PedroTamaroff I have a question we discussed this before but I want to ask something I am confused about. Suppose Y is two sheeted covering space of X. the constant function $K : \Delta^n \rightarrow X$ is homotopic to $\sigma : \Delta^n \rightarrow X$ as $\Delta^n$ is contractible. Since Y is two sheeting covering space of X, so we can lift K in two ways and by the homotopy lifting lemma $\sigma$ will have a lift.
but why doesn't guarantee that it will have atleast two lifts?
can't the lift of $\sigma$ be the same ?
 
No for the time, and RL lemma suggestion @PedroTamaroff
 
10:43 PM
@Mambo OK.
@Adeek What does unique lifting say?
 
See you some other time @Pedro
 
the unique lifting homotopy say that we can lift the whole homotopy itself
 
No.
Write what it says carefully.
I cannot really stay around.
 
ok here it is carefully
Given a covering space $p : \tilde{X} \rightarrow X$, a homotopy $f_t : Y \rightarrow X$, and a map $\tilde{f_0} : Y \rightarrow \tilde{X}$ lifting $f_0$, then there exists a unique homotopy $\tilde{f_t} : Y \rightarrow \tilde{X}$ of $\tilde{f_0}$ that lifts $f_t$
ohhh
uniquee
oh I see
I see
 
10:48 PM
I understand
ok thanks @PedroTamaroff
haha
 
10:59 PM
Hello @TedShifrin
 
Hi @Mambo
 
Have you studied Fourier algebras ?
 
Never.
 
About left regular representation of a locally compact group? @TedShifrin
 
Not really.
 
11:04 PM
Okay. np
 
@TedShifrin @TedShifrin @TedShifrin @TedShifrin
I have my talk tomorrow !
quite nervous
I invited my mum and dad and fiance to come
is it ok to invite family members to come ? one of my friend was making fun of me because of that @TedShifrin
 
11:37 PM
Morning.
 
11:57 PM
hi @chat
 
00:00 - 11:0011:00 - 00:00

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