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08:10
@Gerry Myerson
Would you mind taking a look at this
1
Q: Summation of Dedekind sums to zero

ruadathI'm trying to show that: $\sum_{a=0}^b\text{GCD}(a,b)s(a,b)=0$ where $s$ is the Dedekind sum. Any ideas? I have already managed to show the above without the GCD factor, i.e. $\sum_{a=0}^bs(a,b)=0$

I think you might be interested
This room seems quite dead.
Zombies everywhere.
Oh my goodness
@BalarkaSen Check this out:
0
Q: Proving that $d/dx(x e^{-x}) = (-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ by induction.

Sab ಠ_ಠI'm quite stuck on this. How would you prove the following by induction? $d/dx(x e^{-x}) = (-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ . I did: $d/dx(x e^{-x})=(e^{-x}) - x(e^{-x})$ Now I have no idea how to proceed and prove this by induction. I would really appreciate if anyone could guide me. A clear answer wo...

@Zombies Hello.
08:26
@Sab You mean prove $$\frac{d^n}{dx^n} \left ( x \exp(-x) \right ) = (-1)^n \exp(-x)(x - n)$$ Don't you? Otherwise it doesn't make sense.
second
editing
edited
1
Q: Proving that $\frac{d}{dx}(x e^{-x}) = (-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ by induction.

Sab ಠ_ಠI'm quite stuck on this. How would you prove the following by induction? $\frac{d}{dx}(x e^{-x}) = (-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ . I did: $\frac{d}{dx}(x e^{-x})=(e^{-x}) - x(e^{-x})$ Now I have no idea how to proceed and prove this by induction. I would really appreciate if anyone could guide me. A...

@Sabಠ_ಠ What edited?
THe question
@BalarkaSen I forgot what $\frac{d^n}{dx^n}$ means :/ Can you tell?
It's still the same as before
08:28
@Sabಠ_ಠ I don't see.
@Sawarnik $n$-th derivative.
@BalarkaSen Ah.
AHHH I missed that part
:15359883 Nope, $f^{(n)}(x)$, you mean.
@BalarkaSen Yes, typo. Not exactly typo but..
08:31
:15359883 Nope, $f^{(n)}(x)$, you mean.
@BalarkaSen But that's much better than $\frac{d^n}{dx^n}$.
Okay now it's well edited
@BalarkaSen ?
1
Q: Proving that nth derivate of $x e^{-x}$ is $(-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ by induction.

Sab ಠ_ಠI'm quite stuck on this. How would you prove that the $n^{th}$ derivative of $x e^{-x}$ if the $(-1)^n (e^{-x})(x-n)$ by induction? I did: $\frac{d}{dx}(x e^{-x})=(e^{-x}) - x(e^{-x})$ Now I have no idea how to proceed and prove this by induction. I would really appreciate if anyone could guid...

@Sabಠ_ಠ I see two spelling mistakes :P
08:33
"Well" not perfectly :3
@Sawarnik Otherwise it might mean 1) $(f(x))^n$ or 2) $f^{\circ n}(x)$
@BalarkaSen I know.
@Sawarnik Double post. Internet connection.
Can you guys explain the answer/
I got a test in 2 hours :O
08:35
@BalarkaSen But that's much better than $\frac{d^n}{dx^n}$.
No one realizes that, that question is the same question with some substitutions, that has 15+ votes, and is unsolved as of yet.
@Sawarnik Here's a limit question for you
lim x-> 0 $\frac{ln(x+1) - sin(x)}{x^2}$ @Sawarnik
@ParthKohli Hey!
@Sabಠ_ಠ Well, who's stopping you to apply induction?
08:39
@BalarkaSen I'm not sure how to do it
PK doesn't talk to me these days.
pretty sure I'll get this on the test, so I would love to get a solution to this
@Sabಠ_ಠ How do you know? Hmm...
@Sabಠ_ಠ Get the $n$-th derivative. And differentiate it. You know how to apply induction, I suppose?
@Sawarnik it's the only question of this type I got in my tutorials. and it involves induction
@BalarkaSen Not much, not much
@Sawarnik check the limit thing
08:41
@robjohn I'm both interested in writing papers and also much more interested in previewing things I want to type here (LaTeX)
@Sabಠ_ಠ Oh yeah.
I suppose Hopital?
@Sabಠ_ಠ $-1/2$
For induction first of all give a value to the formula to see whether it gives good feedback.Second write the formula for the $i$ and prove it for the $i+1$
@BalarkaSen how?
@MrWho that's all? :O
Lemme try
08:43
@Sabಠ_ಠ Le Hospitale.
@Sabಠ_ಠ That's all, but this is the weak method of induction, however, it should work.
@BalarkaSen Without le hospital?
@Sabಠ_ಠ :| Oh no.
Ok let me think.
@MrWho But how can I give $n$ in $f^n (x)$ an initial value of 0? Shouldn't $n$ be 1?
@Sabಠ_ಠ Let me solve it
08:45
Okay
Thanks a lot :)
@Sabಠ_ಠ I'm in the middle of something , lots of papers coming, so be patient!
No problem. I got 1.30 hours :)
@ParthKohli Sorry.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Without Hopital that's tough...hmm.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Child's play.
@Sawarnik yup I know. But we didn't learn le lopital yet
08:47
@BalarkaSen :/
$\log(1 + x) - \sin(x) = -1/2 x^2 + O(x^3)$
Now you use series.
That's not allowed again. @BalarkaSen Imagine you are learning limits for the first time, you haven't studied derivatives yet. :P
=P
Divide by $x^2.$
What's that :O
Damn, I'm such a noob at maths l;-;
@Sabಠ_ಠ Series expansion.
@Sawarnik You don't need derivatives, man, haven't you learned anything of elementary sequence and series?
08:49
@BalarkaSen Your level is above 9000
@BalarkaSen Ah, I m trying to take you to the level of tools that Sab has. Exercise in Chapter 1 of calculus, would you need series?
$\sin(x)$ can be expanded through De'Moivre, no derivatives.
$\log(1+x)$, I am not sure. But I am pretty sure no derivatives are needed whatsoever.
You only need first few terms.
Here's another: I'm not getting the right answer for some reason
This is a past question paper, pretty sure this may come up again ;-;
@Sawarnik I'd say it's best to apply the method that is easy. Usage of series here in the absence of L'Hopital is most easy.
@BalarkaSen But again ... chalo thik hai.
08:53
Think, how can you expand $\log(1+x)$?
Hmm.
Forget it, if it's in a multiple choice I'll apply le lopital noone will know :P
Checl the new question
@Sabಠ_ಠ You have MCQ?
Great!
@Sabಠ_ಠ Hey Daniel Fischer has already answered you in comments.
Yup 8 mcqs, 4 marks each ;-;
@MrWho I tried I can't get it to work.
@MrWho Mind putting the solution?
@Sabಠ_ಠ Chain rule, dude.
08:55
@BalarkaSen not great, 1 wrong = -1 mark
@BalarkaSen what answer you get?
I used chain rule, the answer is wrong heh
@Sabಠ_ಠ Haven't tried.
@Sabಠ_ಠ it's just as he said : $\frac{d^{n+1}}{dx^{n+1}} (xe^{-x}) = \frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{d^n}{dx^n}(xe^{-x})\right),$
You try it.
I got 2
Answer is -2
@Sabಠ_ಠ Do the write hand side!
08:56
DOing it
;-;
I'm so stressed I'm freaking out
@Sabಠ_ಠ RHS, man, RHS.
it would be $\frac{d}{dx}((-1)^n e^ (-x) (x-n))$
Darn internet connection.
@BalarkaSen Do you have nothing else to say?
@Sawarnik Got it?
09:00
Anyone good at geometric inequalities?
@Sawarnik Do you have any problem on NT for me?
@MrWho What?
@Sawarnik Sorry @Sabಠ_ಠ
@Sawarnik I wanted to call @Sabಠ_ಠ
Ohk.
KOH
09:01
@BalarkaSen 60006606600060606060 is not a perfect square. How will you prove or disprove?
@Sawarnik Interesting question.
@MrWho Why do we start with n = 0?
@robjohn A couple of approaches? I have no approach there, it's over my head. There are some other things that I might try, but I'm not sure if they are useful.
Greetings
@Sawarnik Balarka is doing Group stuff man!he is just pro and don't spend time on kid maths :D
09:04
SO basically, it's n+1 then n = 0 is the base case?
@MrWho Hmm, but he asks questions from kids?
@Sawarnik He's a kid?
lol
@Sabಠ_ಠ See whether general formula works for $n=0$ , it works, so now do the right hand side of that equation.
@MrWho Sometimes, kid math raises several problems pros can't even get there teeths.
For example, Collatz conjecture.
so it becomes $f'(x)$when $x=1$
09:06
@Sawarnik I know a professor who asks question from his students, that's not logical.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Yes, we both are 14, so that qualifies under kids :D
:S Geniuses ;-;
@Sabಠ_ಠ of course.
@MrWho That's good.
GImme your minds
09:07
@Sabಠ_ಠ Disconnect and go work on what you've already got.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Come in next 15 minutes.
I got only this left actually
@BalarkaSen Collatz wasn't precisely a kid when he made his conjecture.
@Sawarnik Clearly divisible by 6. Divisible by another 3 and another 2, thus by 36. Dividing out by that (took me a calculator) we get 1666850183335016835. Clearly, it's divisible by only one 5. Thus, not a perfect square.
@DanielFischer Also I know that Gauss said, if it was about conjectures, I could make lots of conjectures to bamboozle all of the mathematicians, he believed that making unsolvable conjectures in math is not quite hard.
09:09
@BalarkaSen That's how I did, but don't use calculator :D
@Sawarnik It's not hard to divide by 36, you know =P
@BalarkaSen Its easier to see that it doesn't have two factors of 5 but has one imo :P
But I am not in the mood for playing Sankuntala Devi,
@Sawarnik Oh, yeah, right, that's true.
=P
@DanielFischer I know, but Collatz conjecture is an elementary number theory question, no?
@BalarkaSen Are you enrolled in a university?
@MrWho I can't do it.
@Sabಠ_ಠ No, I am just a kid. Why?
09:14
@BalarkaSen Why don't you enroll, get a degree and become a professional mathematician? o.O
@BalarkaSen Not all elementary number theory is "kid math", I'd say. Although, if you mean that the problem can be understood by kids (even if they don't know as much about maths as you do), then the Collatz conjecture is a fitting example.
@BalarkaSen Why is Collatz so hard to prove?
@DanielFischer Yes, by kid math, I don't mean it's easy. =P
@BalarkaSen Seriously, yesterday, a kid asked me a question about perfect square!
The roots of the problem essentially goes very deep in NT and probably to something called Ergodic number theory, which even pros can't understand sometimes =P
09:16
@MrWho What was it?
@Sawarnik It's probably because it's not so elementary as we think it is.
@BalarkaSen did you see it? $$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\log(\cosh(x))}{x} e^{-x} \ dx$$
@Sawarnik How to identify perfect squares!
Hmm.
@BalarkaSen Have you tried Project Euler?
@MrWho I am not sure about the best algorithm out there. @DanielFischer? Perhaps simply squareroot and take the fractional part?
@Chris'ssis Hmm, I wonder if it has a closed form.
Looks evilish to me.
@Sawarnik No. Too much "Olympiad-like" problems.
09:19
@BalarkaSen -_-
What are you talking about?
@BalarkaSen this might possibly lead to closed forms in terms of multiple gamma function (but not sure 100%).
@Sawarnik I don't like the problems which uses trick theory, rather the problems that hides some informations.
@BalarkaSen I don't understand. Project Euler is a programming thingy.
@Chris'ssis That exponential term makes me think that no "nice" closed form is possible.
@BalarkaSen There is no "best" algorithm for all uses. And it depends on what form you have the number given in. And the size of the number, of course.
09:21
@ParthKohli Hi again!
@Sawarnik I know. But they use programming tricks.
@DanielFischer Could you please post a solution to the induction? I'm trying I can't get it. I used base case n = 1
Wait, I didn;t know Euler Project just poses programming problems?
I though they also pose hands-on math problems.
@BalarkaSen It's mathematical problems where you create a program to solve it. Example calculate the sum of all integers from 1-100 inclusive(which can be done using progression, and in programming it's a loop)
@BalarkaSen Math problems, but to be solved by a programme (most questions would take too long by hand).
09:23
@BalarkaSen projecteuler.net
@Sabಠ_ಠ That's just tooo easy.
@DanielFischer Oh, then I am not too good at computational number theory, though I sure read a few books like Crandall-Pomerance.
@Sawarnik The easy one is like the first question
@BalarkaSen Hi, no school?
I need some help with this induction people :(
@ParthKohli Nope. Summer.
09:25
@ParthKohli I am thinking he never goes to school.
But mine begins in 3 days! Yay!
@BalarkaSen Damn, when did the summer vacation start?
@Sawarnik That's just false. Government gave every school extra holidays for summer.
@BalarkaSen Ah, this one is connected to the Alexeiewsky’s theorem
@Sabಠ_ಠ What is $$\frac{d}{dx} \left((x-n)e^{-x}\right)\,?$$
$e^{-x} - (n-1)(e^{-x})$
09:26
@Chris'ssis Yeppers.
Actually, I wonder if Barnes G is sufficient here.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Where did you get the $(n-1)$ from?
@DanielFischer Well, I did Problem 8 by just glancing at the question :D
I used product rule
@Sabಠ_ಠ The product rule gives you $$\left(\frac{d}{dx}(x-n)\right)e^{-x} + (x-n)\frac{d}{dx}e^{-x}.$$ What in that you got the $(n-1)$ from?
My answer was wrong @DanielFischer Here's the correct one: $-(x-n)(e^{-x})+(e^{-x})$
09:30
@Sabಠ_ಠ Ah, good. So, can you rewrite that into the desired form? (Don't forget that we have a sign $(-1)^n$ not yet used.)
@Sawarnik Which one was problem 8? (And yes, of the early ones, you can do several without using a computer.)
So it's $-e^{-x}((x-n)+1) $
$$\frac{\Xi}{\overline{\Xi}}$$
@Sabಠ_ಠ Not quite. $-(x-n)e^{-x} + e^{-x} = (n-x)e^{-x} + e^{-x} = (n+1-x)e^{-x} = -(x-(n+1))e^{-x}$.
@BalarkaSen What's it?
@Sawarnik A complex number divided by it's conjugate.
09:33
@Sawarnik Legendary notation. Barry Mazur annoyed Serge Lang.
@DanielFischer Then what's next?
@Sabಠ_ಠ Well, if you multiply by the factor $(-1)^n$ we left out above, you have $$\left(\frac{d}{dx}\right)^{n+1}\left(xe^{-x}\right) = (-1)^{n+1}(x-(n+1))e^{-x}.$$
@ParthKohli Won't you talk to me? :( Ok.
@DanielFischer For finding inflection points of a function these conditions should be fulfilled: 1)$f''(x)=0$ or undefined 2)the function should have $f'(x)$ defined for it at the point $x$ 4)$f"(x)$ should change sign in the $x$ , is there anything left?
@MrWho I would have to read up on the definition of an inflection point. Instead of me reading wikipedia and relaying it here, it may be better if you read it yourself, less risk of forgetting something.
09:40
..
@DanielFischer No I just want to know whether I'm right about the conditions and if I am, we've got a special type of inflection point which is vertical and so $f'(x)=+ OR -\infty$ and it doesn't fulfill the conditions, how is it then?
@MrWho And I don't know if you are. I would have to learn what an inflection point is defined as in the possibly non-smooth case.
@DanielFischer Okay, no problem, thanks
@Sawarnik Damn it, I just got temptation to get A Real Analysis book.
@robjohn It doesn't work. This question need some research and maybe we also need to defined some new constants (if we want a closed form)
@MrWho Why, is that a problem?
09:47
@Chris'ssis The $\log(\cosh(x))/x$ integral?
@robjohn Yes. This is definitely a question like the ones of Ramanujan.
@Chris'ssis Just started working on it again... one series is $$1+\sum_{k=1}^\infty(-1)^k\frac{\log(2k+1)}{k}$$
I am now working on a second approach that gets a faster converging series
@robjohn I also reached this point and couldn't go further.
Okay so $e^z$ maps $C = \{ -A < \mathrm{Im}(z) < A \} $ onto $ D = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} : \mathrm{Im}(z) \wedge \mathrm{Re}(z)>0\}$ Right?
Darn, I mean $e^{z \pi/(2A)}$
@N3buchadnezzar No, it maps the strip onto the right half-plane, not only the first quadrant.
(The corrected version, $e^{z\pi/(2A)}$)
10:00
Did I not write the right half-plane? Thats what I meant to write
$\mathrm{Im}(z) \wedge (\mathrm{Re}(z) > 0)$
@N3buchadnezzar Are you doing conformal mappings?
@N3buchadnezzar I thought with $\operatorname{Im}(z) \land \operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ you meant both should be $> 0$.
I understand, somewhat confusing notation. My bad
10:04
$\operatorname{Im}(z)$ is not a boolean expression, so $\operatorname{Im}(z)\land \dotsc$ doesn't strictly make sense.
@DanielFischer Something like simply $D = \{ z : \mathrm{Im}(z)>0 \}$ then ? =)
@N3buchadnezzar $\operatorname{Re} z > 0$.
@N3buchadnezzar That's the only chapter of complex analysis I fear =P
@N3buchadnezzar $\Re z > 0$
Typo guys, typo!
Thanks @sawarnik ;-)
..
10:21
Hmm
I think I have a idea on how exactly Weierstrass constructed his $\wp$
$$\cot(z) = \frac{1}{z} + \sum_{n \in \Bbb Z\setminus \{0\}} \frac{1}{z-n\pi} + \frac{1}{n\pi}$$
$$\wp(z) = \frac1{z^2} + \sum_{(m, n) \in \Bbb Z^2 \setminus \{(0, 0)\}} \frac{1}{z - m - n\tau} + \frac1{m + n\tau}$$
One is essentially an analogue of the other.
Can it be that both comes from Mittag-Leffler expansion theorem?
Sorry, I typoed on the second one. It should have been $$\wp(z) = \frac1{z^2} + \sum_{(m, n) \in \Bbb Z^2 \setminus \{(0, 0)\}} \frac{1}{(z - m - n\tau)^2} + \frac1{(m + n\tau)^2}$$
10:38
Typo guys, typo!
:D
Louiville says that any entire bounded complex function defined on $\mathbb{C}$ reduces to a constant.
What about $$ e^{-x^2-i y^2} $$ or is that not defined as a complex function?
Given a positive (you may assume that it isn't descending at any point) arithmetic function f such that for every function g=o(n) it follows that g(n)=o(f(n)).

Must f be at least linear? (i.e f(n) = \Omega(n))
10:55
@N3buchadnezzar "entire function" means "entire holomorphic function".
And the name is Liouville, Louisville is a town, iirc in Kentucky.
@DanielFischer I managed to do 3/4 of the proof
But I can't get the last part
@Sabಠ_ಠ What have you, and hence, what's still missing?
So my base case was n = 1
and then my inductive step was the same thing as given
then I did the differentiation for n+1
I got this: $(-1^n)(e^{-x})((n+1)(x-n+1)-(x-n+1)+1)$
I can't convert it back to normal :S
@Sabಠ_ಠ How did you get that? We had the differentiation in the inductive step above.
@DanielFischer Is my function not holomorphic?
11:01
I assumed $f^n(xe^{-x}) = (-1)^n(e^{-x})(x-n)$
Then I did $f^{n+1}(xe^{-x})$
@N3buchadnezzar No, it isn't.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Write $f^{(n)}$, not $f^n$, to distinguis it from powers or iterated applications.
@N3buchadnezzar For example you can see that since it's defined on all of $\mathbb{C}$, bounded, and not constant ;-)
$f^{(n+1)}(xe^{-x}) = (-1)^{(n+1)}(e^{-x})(x-n+1)$
^ I differentiatied that @DanielFischer
So it's diff. of 3 terms for product rule
@DanielFischer Circle logic, and that is not my definition of a holormphic function :p
11:04
f'gh + fg'h + fgh'
And I got $(-1^n)(e^{-x})((n+1)(x-n+1)-(x-n+1)+1)$
@Sabಠ_ಠ You should differentiate $(-1)^n(x-n)e^{-x}$. The first is a constant factor, so $$\frac{d}{dx}\left((-1)^n(x-n)e^{-x}\right) = (-1)^n \left[\left(\frac{d}{dx}(x-n)\right)e^{-x} + (x-n)\frac{d}{dx}e^{-x}\right].$$
@DanielFischer Anyway any idea how to map $D = \{ z : -B < \Im(z) < B \}$ into the right half plane? I know I have to change the "angle" / but I do not quite see how. Just a hint is fine (as usual..) =)
Ahhh
So for n+1 I differentiate n
Then it will look like n+1?
@N3buchadnezzar Yeah, that wasn't serious. Just check the Cauchy-Riemann equations, for example.
AHA
Makes perfect sens@
11:08
Is that restriction absolute? I have tried to read what way those implications hold
@N3buchadnezzar We had exactly that already to day, just $B$ was called $A$.
Thanks @DanielFischer I got it now. and I think I finally understood proofs by induction :D
AWESOME
@DanielFischer Ops I meant $D = \{ z : - B < \mathrm{Arg}(z) < B \}$, so it is a wedge.
@N3buchadnezzar A real-differentiable function is holomorphic on $U$ if and only if the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied on all of $U$.
@N3buchadnezzar Ah. Look at powers.
Yeah I know that $z^2$ doubles the angle $z^3$ triples it
11:11
@N3buchadnezzar And $z^{\pi/4}$?
r*exp(i pi/4 y)
Seems like it multiplies the angle with $\pi/4$ right?
Yes. And $z^\alpha$?
So $z^{\pi /(2B)}$ should do the trick
Is it not implicitly read left to right?
Eg $\cos \sin x + 3$ should be interpreted as $\cos ( \sin ( x + 3 ) $
11:19
Ask your favourite programming language what it thinks a/b*c means. And $\cos \sin x + 3$ is a parse error even for humans. While it's common to not parenthesize products in arguments of trigonometric (and similar) functions, e.g. $\sin (n+\frac{1}{2})\pi$ does not mean $\pi\sin (n+\frac{1}{2})$ usually, there's not much of such a convention for sums. Does $\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x$ mean $\cos^2 \left(x+\sin^2x\right)$?
Point taken
I still think the notation $\sin (n + \frac{1}{2})\pi$ is confusing
It is, but that's pretty widespread, so one better gets used to it.
And I actually preffer to write trigonometric functions as $(\cos x)^2 + (\sin x)^2$ to avoid all confusing. But extensive use of parenthesis is bad from a typographical point, even though it might be slightly better pedagogicaly.
You've begun to write in English like me. :-)))
Yeah. I was quite confused at the begining when often in litterature one would drop the limits in sums eg $\sum x^n = \frac{1}{1-x}$
11:25
@N3buchadnezzar The ultimate pedagogical challenge: Explain why it is a good idea to use $\sin^2 x$ for $(\sin x)^2$ and $\cos^{-1} x$ for $\arccos x$ in the same expression.
I hate the $\cos^{-1} x$ thingy, as well as $tg(x)$
@DanielFischer what exactly do you mean by a "pedagogical challenge"?
A challenge to prove your pedagogical skills.
I can only see inconsistent use of notation :-)
$\cos^{-1} x$ could mean 1/(cos x)
no?
That's the point.
11:33
Right, otherwise we'd write $\cos^{-1}(\{x\})$.
4
Q: Is this statement which relates the Fourier transform of a function to its singularities correct?

Rajesh DI am working on a problem, which would possibly relate the Fourier transform/series with the jump singularities of the function where the function itself or one of its derivatives jump. ((some kind of logarthimic blow ups too, possibly as a corollary). Consider a BV function $f(t)$ in $L^2(\math...

@DanielFischer But then you don't get an opportunity to test students on their memory of an arbitrarily chosen standard. (Assuming you're going the full nine yards and making it set-valued)
@KarlKronenfeld $\cos^{-1} \colon \mathfrak{P}(\mathbb{C}) \to \mathfrak{P}(\mathbb{C})$
furthermore what makes it "ultimate"?
11:39
There's none coming after it (yet).
@DanielFischer Do you know what topology is being referred to in the first paragraph here (on $C(X)$)?
@KarlKronenfeld The topology induced by the Hausdorff pseudo-metric? Would be my best guess without further information. (And I find it a terrible idea to denote the space $C(X)$.)
Ah, wait, not a metric space.
So no Hausdorff pseudo-metric.
It would be unbelievable if "C(x)" had a unique Hausdorff topology, so "the" was also poorly chosen.
good point^
11:55
Makes me wonder if any Hausdorff topology could be used. Does it sound plausible, @DanielFischer?
(F is a lot like the diagonal subset of $C(X)\times C(X)$)
@KarlKronenfeld No, doesn't sound plausible to me. On the space of compact subsets of a metric space, you have the Hausdorff-metric, and the topology induced by that is sometimes called the Hausdorff topology. It must be something analogous here, but I'm not sure how the topology would be defined without a metric on $X$.
@DanielFischer I still find it strange that exponentition has three different meanings with same notation
@DanielFischer Ah, ok

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