Remove $3$ from $\mathbb{R}$...then remove $f(3)$ from $\mathbb{R^2}$. Here $f(3)$ is defined by some point $(3, k)$ for some $k \in \mathbb{R}$. But then $(3, k-1)$ is still an element of $\mathbb{R^2}$. This does not have an inverse, and so it's not homeomorphic.
@Balarka? @Studentmath?