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12:00 AM
But what's the coefficient of $x^0$? There's no $x^0$, so its coefficient is $0$
 
oh
i get it , is just that iam a bit slow
 
In the book "generatingfunctionology", this is called "using the $xD$ operator"... pretty funny, huh? xD
 
what would i do with out this site!
 
$xD$ = differentiate (that's why you have the $D$) and then multiply by $x$
 
guys i have a general question
iam going to study statistics ,so i was wondering what math courses should you have before starting statistics courses
i know there are different opinions out there
but what do you think?
 
12:05 AM
be able to do summations and multivariable integrals
well, prob/stats
 
yeah
i read in the course syllabus for ... advanced real analysis (a course that we have in university of Stockholm) that there are some applications on probability
 
probability theory is in a lot of ways its own thing, divorced from statistics
but whether or not you'll want to take real analysis will depend on the kind of statistics classes you want to take
 
iam looking to read courses associated with becomming an actuary... maybe not a good answer
maybe you understand..
but there is some courses in probability theory that need to be done,i know
 
@PabloRotondo Euler polynomials.
 
I don't know a whole lot about what you need to know to do actuarial work, but I imagine you wouldn't need "advanced real analysis"
 
12:14 AM
ok, i dont think so neither. mike what courses are you taking now
 
leo
@anon
 
yeah
 
leo
sub s is for transcendence degree
 
Fourier once said. "Yesterday was my 21st birthday, at that age Newton and Pascal had already acquired many claims to immortality." It was 34 years later he'd be publishing his "Theorie Analytique de la Chaleur."
 
12:19 AM
@leo I am not familiar with transcendence theory. How can finite extensions have nontrivial transcendence degrees?
 
hey guys is this true? The dot product of two matrices $A_1$ and $A_2$ is denoted as
$$
\sum_{i = 1}^n\sum_{j = 1}^m a_{ij}x_j
$$
pardon if i am interrupting
 
leo
@PedroTamaroff Interesting. Did you got 21 yesterday?
 
what you have written @Don involves a matrix A and a vector x...
 
oh right, oops
 
you seem to be summing the entries of Ax
 
12:20 AM
@leo Nah, that'll happen next year.
 
the canonical inner product of matrices is tr(A^T B) which is basically the sum of all $a_{ij}b_{ij}$s over all $i,j$
 
leo
@anon you say because of the primitive element theorem? BTW are there books in transcendence theory?
 
you mean $a_{ij}b_{ji}$ @anon?
 
@DonLarynx Nope.
Transpose.
 
oh ok
thanks @anon @Pedro
 
12:21 AM
It is the canonical product on $\Bbb R^{n^2}$ if you may =)
 
basically we are viewing a matrix as a coordinate vector, and all of the entries are coordinates
just arranged in a square
 
leo
@PedroTamaroff young man you are
 
@Charlie I saw $\textit{A Beautiful Mind}$ today and shed tears. I have never done that for a movie.
 
@leo How old are you?
 
leo
2 4
2 4 8
2 4 8 16
@PedroTamaroff 24
 
12:28 AM
@leo (1) I don't understand your question and (2) not sure
 
@Leo clearly the next in that seuence is 31
 
leo
Anyway. Lang have a section on it. Read some lines and seems good
@Mike of course
 
@leo these notes seem pretty good math.stanford.edu/~ksound/TransNotes.pdf
 
leo
@Mike Thanks, I'll take a look
 
The dot product $A\cdot \vec{x}$ of a matrix $A$ with coefficients $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n$ and vector $\vec{x}$ consisting of \textit{n}-tuple $(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n)$ is denoted as
$$
\sum_{i = 1}^m\sum_{j = 1}^n a_{ij}x_j
$$.

In general, $A$ transforms the vector $\vec{x}$ into a new vector $B$ - the solution - via matrix multiplication, which is defined to be the dot product. In the case of two matrices $C$ with coefficients $c_1, c_2, \dots, c_s$ and $D$ with coefficients $d_1, d_2, \dots, d_s$, we write
Did I write that correctly?
 
12:40 AM
the matrix A has coefficients $a_1,\cdots,a_n$?
a "dot product" of a matrix and a vector? no, that's just regular old multiplication (where $x$ is a column vector).
 
@PedroTamaroff What about the Euler polynomials?
 
your equation after "we write" doesn't use the $c$'s or $d$'s at all
and again surely $C$ and $D$ are arrays (matrices!) not lists
it also doesn't make sense to say "we write [expression]" without saying what we're writing - you have to put an equation down or say it's a definition of something
 
@PabloRotondo They pop up in $(xD)^n(1-x)^{-1}$.
That is, $(xD)^n(1-x)^{-1}=\varphi_n(x)D^n(1-x)^{-1}$.
Or something of the sort save some factor. =)
 
@PedroTamaroff hmm, does that work with functions in general?
(as opposed to just 1/(1-x))
 
Hey guys, I found something cool. Mathjax also allows to write math in an other math lanugage, which is asciimath. This is not as complete as latex, but is easier and faster to write than latex. And maybe usefull for the chat here.
`(2+3)/5`
 
12:49 AM
Sorry that paragraph doesn't make sense lol
 
jsfiddle.net/4cqVD/1 Here is a chatjax script that allows both latex as asciimath. In this way you can write a matrix like this for example `[[1,2],[2,3]]`
And you can write things like `sin(x) in RR`
 
@anon Probably.
Hence $(xD)^n=\varphi_n(x)D^n$. Yiss.
 
Hmmmmm.
I had to put down my swan.
 
I have added some more examples of how this math language works in this jsfiddle: jsfiddle.net/4cqVD/3
 
12:59 AM
 
It work now for me. So: ``(a,b]={x in RR | a < x <= b}`` renders as you may guess it would.
 
@90intuition Ah, but it renders inline.
 
`` ... `` renders display `.. ` renders inline
 
@90intuition I meant display, sorry.
 
`sin^-1(x)` renders inline
This languages is not so complete as latex. But I can remember having chats here and wanting to type faster. This language is quite fast. \Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z becomes ZZ xx ZZ for example
So this script basicly allows both latex as this asciimath language. Which I thought is pretty cool :)
 
1:09 AM
@90intuition That's nice.
 
Only thing is that markdown reserves the backticks. So you will need to escape it with backslash to get the backticks that asciimath wants.
 
But are you not using LaTeX's stuff, and simplifying the language?
 
I didn't make this language :P
It's from Peter Jipsen who made this in 2005 I believe.
He was trying to make a language which is close as possible to the language mathematicians use when typing emails etc. and having no tools available to render it as math. After that he extended it with latex like notation, but that is typed faster.
But it started out with things like (1+3)/(2+3) that renders as \frac{1+3}{2+3}
and <= >= for \le \ge etc
2*3 for 2\cdot 3
 
Yeah, that is great.
 
The author calls it calculator-style syntax.
But if I'm going to use this chatjax script, and nobody else, than this is kind of silly, as I'm the only wants that sees it. So @robjohn would you be willing to add this extended chatjax bookmarlet to your website ? You can find it here: jsfiddle.net/4cqVD/4 In short: It keeps working exactly the same, but it allows math to be typed also in an other lanuage (asciimath). See the jsfiddle for examples.
I'm going to bed now.
 
1:57 AM
Have you ever done this @PedroTamaroff
Constructed a field like a tensor product of modules
 
@EnjoysMath Nope.
 
Let $H, K$ be the fields
define $F_*(H\times K)$ to be the free multiplicative abelian group on the cartesian product of underlying sets of $H, K$.
 
Let that be $F_*$
and Let $F_+ = F_+(F_*)$ be the free additive abelian group on $F_*$
 
Damn, big things.
 
2:00 AM
Then collect the elements of certain form and take quotient to make it a field
 
As in?
 
Idk it's hard
to say
pls help
:D
 
Is there a direct product of fields?
 
I don't think so, no.
 
2:03 AM
What if you said $(a, b)^{-1} - (a^{-1}, b^{-1}) = 0$ would that violate something?
 
I don't know.
 
cocycle: in Weibel, intro to homological algebra, i am uncertain of the correct interpretation of the expression "Hom_R(Z_n, C)" for some chain of R modules C. i take this as the chain with degree k elements the R linear maps from the n cycles of C (i.e. ker d_n) to the degree k elements of C. is this correct, or should i be parsing Z_n as a chain itself?
This is exercise 1.1.4, page 3. The goal of the exercise is to prove that The nth homology of the cited expression vanishes => the nth homology of the chain C vanishes
 
@Raeez Beats the crap out of me. =)
 
what a picture
visual mathematics
 
I believe I have a proof (take the conanical Monic sending Z_n to C_n and use exactness of the given hom chain to show the existence of some map j: Z_n -> C_n+1 the image of C_n+1 under dj contains Z_n, hence H_n is zero), yet this assumes my interpretation is correct
 
2:10 AM
Pedro, we can't simply do $(a,x)^{-1} = (a^{-1}, x^{-1})$ what would the inverse of $(1,0)$ be, that is the general argument so forget about that first form I posted, but look at:
$(a,x)(a,y) - (a^2, xy)$
 
@EnjoysMath I just don't think it is that simple.
For example, $(1,0)\times (0,1)$?
What should that be?
 
Okay, identify all $(a,0) - (b, 0)$, $(a, 0) - (b , 0)$.
 
@90intuition Almost everyone using the math chatroom uses ChatJax
 
2:28 AM
@robjohn Rob.
@AlexanderGruber Yo.
 
the free abelian group generated by the free group generated by a set is the add. grp of the skew poly ring Z<S>
 
2:43 AM
in the definition of direct/inverse limits by universal property, where you've got A as the limit and B as some other group and they're both projecting onto members of the family of objects, is the induced morphism between A and B dependent on the index of the members, or does it have to be the same one no matter who you're projecting onto?
(I'd draw it but i'm useless at commutative diagrams in mathjax)
 
can't say I understand what you're asking
 
so you've got $A\rightarrow A_i$ and $A\rightarrow A_j$ and $A_i\rightarrow A_j$
 
uh-huh
 
and you've got $B$ with arrows like that also
 
right
 
2:47 AM
then there is a unique morphism $A\rightarrow B$ so that the diagram commutes
 
well, do you mean $B\to A_i$ and $B\to A_j$ commuting with $A_i\to A_j$?
 
yes
does the morphism there $A\rightarrow B$ depend on $i$ and $j$
 
erm, do you mean $B\to A$? (since we're talking about inverse limits)
the answer is: the map $B\to A$ depends on the entire collection of morphisms $B\to A_i$
I suppose this collection is "downward redundant" (i.e. knowing $B\to A_i$ gives you $B\to A_j$ for all $j\le i$).
 
@PedroTamaroff Yes?
my sound was off so I didn't hear the ping
 
@AlexanderGruber consider $A_i:=C_2^i$ (direct product of $i$ copies of $C_2$ in AbGrp) with projections being the "take out all the outside coordinates" maps. if $G$ is some abgrp and you know $G\to C_2^i$ for all $i$, then you can construct $G\to\varprojlim C_2^i=\prod C_2$ by simply putting all of the coordinate functions together. this will be unique, and it depends on what the individual maps $G\to C_2^i$ are for $i=1,2,\cdots$
 
2:58 AM
@robjohn I had quite a silly question. I have the inner product $$\int_{-1}^1 PQ$$ in $\Bbb R_2[X]$. I calculated $S^{\perp}=\langle 1+X\rangle^{\perp}=\langle 1-3X^2,X-X^2\rangle$ and I have to find the point there that minimizes $\int_{-1}^1(P-1-x^2)^2$ which is of course $\lVert P-Q\rVert^2$, $Q=1+X^2$. But this is minimized by $\lVert Q-\pi_{S^{\perp}}(Q)\rVert =\lVert \pi_{S}(Q)\rVert$, yes?
 
@90intuition If people are using two different ways to write math in chat, things are going to get confusing.
 
I second that ^
 
@PedroTamaroff That looks right.
 
@robjohn Aha. So now I'll find $\pi_S(Q)$ and I am done.
 
@anon He was suggesting asciimath, and I think we should just stay with what is on main. It makes copy-paste work.
 
3:02 AM
I was quite surprised I could solve exercises in this midterm without too much problems. =P
 
@PedroTamaroff :-)
 
@anon DUDE!
I have something for you.
Remember when you asked about paralellepiped and det and the proof in your book you said was bogus?
 
dinnertime BBL
 
@PedroTamaroff I said it seemed circular on my understanding... I take it it's not?
 
@anon Dunno, but my book has a nice recursive definition for volume given an inner product, and proves it must equal the det.
 
3:06 AM
what's the recursion
 
If $\{v_1,\ldots,v_k\}$ is a set of l.i. vectors, we define
$$V(P(v_1))=\lVert v_1\rVert\\V(P(v_1, \ldots,v_k))=V(P(v_1,\ldots,v_{k-1}))\lVert \pi_{\langle v_1,\ldots,v_{k-1}\rangle^{\perp}}(v_k)\rVert$$
 
the volume of the parallelotope to be the vol of {v1,...,v_{k-1}} times the length of v_k projected onto yadda yadda
 
My textbook gives the comparison test for infinite series only for series with positive terms (if an and bn are sequences with an and bn \geq 0, then if an \leq bn, then such and such). Does it also hold for series with negative terms (if an and bn are sequences, then if an \leq bn, then such and such)? I don't see why not, but I'm just checking to be safe.
 
knew it
@portin.daniel 1+1/2+1/4+1/8+... converges but (-1)+(-1)+(-1)+... does not
 
@anon Yiss. Then they go onto showing it equals $|\det (v_{ij})|$.
 
3:11 AM
mmhmm
bah
holidays bring out the family politics
 
@anon I have $A$ Hermitian such that $(A^2+1)(A-1)(A-2)=0$ and I need to show $(Ax,x)>0$ for any nonzero $x$.
@anon Heh, debates over there?
 
apparently there's been a schism on my mom's side but I have no idea where the landmines are
well, more turkey for me
 
@anon thanks for the counterexample
 
@anon yeah i did (i had the same question for direct and inverse)
 
same answer for direct, but you set it up with $A_i\to A$ and $A_j\to A$s instead of projections
and you end up with $A\to B$ in that case
 
3:15 AM
@anon yeah, whenever I take a concrete example it makes sense
but the definition was confusing me because it wasn't specified whether it was "for all $i,j$, a unique $\phi$ exists such that the diagram commutes" or "there exists a unique $\phi$ such that the diagram commutes for all $i,j$"
2nd one's a much stronger statement and is what i figured it was but i was nervous it could be the first one
 
Are these pairs of vectors orthonormal, only orthogonal, or only linearly independent? Change the second vector when necessary to produce orthonormal vectors.

$\begin{bmatrix}0.6\\0.8\end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix}0.4\\-0.3\end{bmatrix}$

They're orthogonal, since $(0.6)(0.4)+(0.8)(-0.3)=0.24-0.24=0$, but they're not orthonormal. I'm curious about if my math is right though to change them to orthonormal as per the instructions.
 
@agent154 You want them to have norm $1$.
 
You've got everything right so far
 
@AlexanderGruber in order to state the compabitility conditions you need to quantify over two variables, $i$ and $j$, taken from the index set. ("for all $i,j\in I$ with $i\le j$, $A\to A_i$ factors through $A\to A_j$ and $A_j\to A$). to state the existence and uniqueness of $B\to A$, you need to quantify over just one variable $i$ taken from the index set (for all objects $B$ and compatible maps $B\to A_i$ for all $i\in I$, there exists a unique $B\to A$ yadda)
 
I used the equations $0.6x+0.8y=0$ and $x^2+y^2=1$ to come up with $y=0.6$ and $x=0.8\overline{6}$
 
3:20 AM
the point is to think in terms of arrows, and the index sets just organize them
 
@anon so in the diagram on this page, for example, the $\psi_j$ is superfluous?
 
haha, I was looking for the phi
no, you do need two variables to state the compatibility conditions
 
I haven't done this in a while, but how do you change an infinite decimal value like $0.8\overline{6}$ to a fraction?
 
in reality, the commutative diagram has all infinity of the arrows, not just two, but the diagram focuses on just two to get the point across (of compatibility)
 
what if i've got a $Y$ that only has arrows to some of the $X_i$'s and not all of them?
 
3:23 AM
in any case quantifying over $I$ once or twice doesn't really matter: in the end all you're saying is that the induced morphism depends on the total collection of morphisms
 
@anon right... good
 
@AlexanderGruber then your diagram does not meet the condition set out by the "for all ..." inherent in the UP
although if you can define the morphisms on a cofinal subset of the index set there is a good sense in which that is "good enough" (since you can determine all of the other morphisms from those via the compatibility conditions)
 
@anon yeah, you can fill in the gaps
 
@agent154 geometric sum formula
 
Kawabonga. What's that fancy polar coordinates yer people talk about?
 
3:26 AM
haha
 
@anon one more small thing you might be able to help me with: it's a terminology question. i'm learning about representable functors. a problem i'm given asks me to prove that in the category of torsion abelian groups, products are representable. do you know what that means? i'm not sure how a product can be representable, only definitions i've seen have made products objects (or triplets of objects w/morphisms)
 
I have only used differentiation-to-find-an-integral a few times successfully, but it works out over other methods when it does
 
@anon It certainly does.
 
cute answer, Pedro
 
Would someone mind taking a look at one of the questions I asked?
 
3:30 AM
@AlexanderGruber ah, I think I get it
 
I am having a hard time understanding the epsilon proof of the limit of a sequence.
 
wait, is the categorical product the same as the direct product?
 
@StevenN I'll see if I can help.
@StevenN Oh, you're having trouble grokking the definition of $x_n\to L$?
 
I was thinking hom(A,B) was like $A^*\otimes B$, so the functor defined by "direct producting against $A$" would be naturally isomorphic to "apply $\hom(A^*,-)$
 
@Pedro Yes, I have read multiple proofs but still have a hard time grasping the concept.
 
3:35 AM
@StevenN OK. Hold on.
 
I thought it was something like $$\begin{array}{ccccc}
& & X & & \\
& \swarrow & &\searrow & \\
A & & \xrightarrow{f} & & B \end{array}$$
 
I mean does the direct product construction satisfy the UP of categorical product
 
an object X and a pair of morphisms such that f commutes for all $f\in \operatorname{Hom}(A,B)$
hm
 
@StevenN You there?
 
@PedroTamaroff Yeah I'm still here
 
3:40 AM
This might help.
 
@AlexanderGruber I don't think I've seen that diagram before
 
And this too, @StevenN
 
Thanks, I will take a look at that.
 
@StevenN Let me know.
=)
 
my understanding is that a direct product $\Pi$ of $X$ and $Y$ (equipped with projections $\Pi\to X,Y$) is such that any maps into $X,Y$ from a common source simultaneously factor through $\Pi$
 
3:42 AM
@anon oh - wikipedia says direct product is categorical product in $\text{Grp}$
 
mm, but you are in the subcat of tors ab grps :)
things can change when you pass down
 
oh noooo
 
well, I am thinking of coproduct
but presumably product can change passing to subcats too
haha
 
@anon wait i don't understand
 
@anon Thanks.
 
3:46 AM
how can it change when we pass down if we're taking a subset (subclass/whatever) of the objects
 
@anon @Pedro we need to have a word
 
@DonLarynx ORLY?
 
isn't the whole thing supposed to be that it works for all other sources, including the ones in TorAbGrp
(i have no idea if that's really the abbreviation)
 
Remember on Sunday asking if the intersection of a compact and connected set is also compact and connected?
 
@AlexanderGruber the number of objects we're quantifying over can be lessened, so the product need not be as "powerful." for example direct sum is coproduct in AbGrp but free product is the coproduct in Grp (the direct sum is not powerful enough for the UP here). again I am not sure about product, I only know this one example for coproducts.
it's probably trivial to those well-versed in UPs and such
 
3:49 AM
 
@anon right, that's going up though, right?
 
THAT'S HOW BIG THE PROOF WAS. @Pedro
Two f***ing pages. So believe it or not you would have failed too.
 
does the free product reduce to direct sum in $\text{Ab}$?
 
@AlexanderGruber same thing, just say it in your head in the other order
 
@Pedro I understand the bigger picture, where we want to see if the points are within 2 epsilon of the limit. I am still having trouble finding the M given an epsilon.
 
3:50 AM
@StevenN Well, that comes with practice. Practice, practice, practice.
@DonLarynx What's the problem with that? Also, the margins are amazingly big.
@StevenN (The strip as width $2\varepsilon$)
 
If I want to find an orthonormal basis for $\mathbb{R}^{3}$, including the vector
\begin{align*}\vec{q}_{1}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\begin{bmatrix}1\\1\\1\end{bmatrix}\end{align*}, do I have to use the Gram-Schmidt algorithm, or is there another way?
 
@Pedro I thought the proof was one paragraph long. So did you.
 
@Pedro I see in a lot of examples that $n>\frac{1}{\epsilon}$. Would I set M equal to $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$?
 
@DonLarynx It really depends on how detailed you want to be. If I can read the proof, maybe I can judge better.
@StevenN $M$ is supposed to be an integer, so you'd have to round that up to the nearest integer.
 
No you're right, this guy was super detailed. lol
 
3:52 AM
@StevenN Do you know that for any positive real number $x$ we can find a natural number such that $nx>1$?
 
@Pedro I got M = 1000000, in the question you asked
 
This is known as the Archimedean property of the reals.
It is quite important. =)
@StevenN Counts the zeros.
 
@pedro M = 6?
 
@StevenN I think you need one more $0$.
$M=10^7$?
 
actually that is enough of categories today
 
3:55 AM
@AlexanderGruber Want analysis? =)
 
@PedroTamaroff i might burst into flames
 
@Pedro $1/0.000001=10^6$
 
the only time a free product is abelian is when one of the factors is trivial and the other abelian
the coproduct (in Grp) of two nontrivial abelian groups will be nonabelian, whereas the coproduct (in AbGrp) of the same two groups will be their direct sum, which is abelian
 
@AlexanderGruber Ha!
 
ever since i've been studying categories i've been buying a brand of beer called "simpler times" to drink at night while i unwind with finite groups
 
4:07 AM
@AlexanderGruber "Simpler Times"?
Such an inappropriate name for a beer.
 
Where's it brewed?
 
@Mike Wisconsin
i never see it sold anywhere but the south though
 
Yeah, I googled the brewery and I haven't seen them before
 
@PedroTamaroff it's so i can sit back and fondly reminisce about back when i didn't know category theory.
 
@AlexanderGruber LAWL.
 
4:12 AM
@Mike they're not bad for a canned american light beer type of thing
 
I have grown fond of black beer.
 
@AlexanderGruber Certainly can't be worse than any of the big names
 
@Mike sure can't
@PedroTamaroff stouts?
 
@Mike Budweiser is a joke. Really.
 
I'm fond of Weyerbacher beers
 
4:13 AM
@AlexanderGruber Yes.
 
@Mike dang, looks like not available in my area.
 
That's a bummer :/
 
@PedroTamaroff i dig on porters when i'm going dark.
 
@AlexanderGruber Do you remember any linear algebra?
=)
I have a Hermitian matrix such that $(A^2+1)(A-1)(A-2)=0$ and I need to prove $\langle Av,v\rangle >0$ for any $v\in\Bbb C^n$ nonzero.
 
@PedroTamaroff some.
 
4:20 AM
yikes
I don't even remember what Hermitian means
 
$A=A^{\ast}$.
$A^\ast=\bar A^t$.
 
Well, I mean... it looks like the only case you've got there that's not fast is $A^2+1=0$
Ah, nevermind
We can have zero divisors
So we can't just deal with those one-by-one :(
 
«We really should question EVERYTHING»
 
agreed
 
4:22 AM
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez =D Where's that from?
 
a comment out there :-)
 
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Ah.
 
in a context where «EVERYTHING» is an überly silly everything
 
What's the comment?
 
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Este link debería permitirte ver el .pdf sin tener que descargar nada.
 
4:51 AM
@robjohn Are you there?
 
@PedroTamaroff Just got back
 
=)
I have a Hermitian matrix such that $(A^2+1)(A-1)(A-2)=0$ and I need to prove $\langle Av,v\rangle >0$ for any $v\in\Bbb C^n$ nonzero.
Any pointers, @robjohn?
 
@PedroTamaroff I'm not sure... I am thinking
 
@robjohn OK. I'll try to think something too.
 
5:08 AM
Damn. Nothing like solving a tough problem to make yourself feel intelligent. Though I wonder if my solution was really that clever. I overlooked how simple it actually was at first. @PedroTamaroff @robjohn How would you guys proceed to solve this?

Find an orthonormal basis for $\mathbb{R}^{3}$, including the vector $\vec{q}_{1}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\begin{bmatrix}1\\1\\1\end{bmatrix}$?
 
@agent154 I would make a nice drawing.
 
My solution is rather long winded (I have a habit of being overly verbose)... but I'll post it in mathb.in
 
@agent154 Do you know Gram-Schmidt orthonormalization?
 
@robjohn I was about to say that!
 
@robjohn I do... but I think this question was intended to be done without it. There is a question afterword that explicitly mentions it
 
5:14 AM
$\left\{\dfrac1{\sqrt3}\begin{bmatrix}1\\1\\1\end{bmatrix}, \dfrac1{\sqrt2}\begin{bmatrix}1\\0\\-1\end{bmatrix}, \dfrac1{\sqrt6}\begin{bmatrix}1\\-2\\1\end{bmatrix}\right\}$
 
Well, that's one.. I came up with $\left\{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\begin{bmatrix}1\\1\\1\end{bmatrix},\ \frac{1}{42}\begin{bmatrix}1\\-5\\4\end{bmatrix},\ \frac{1}{14}\begin{bmatrix}-3\\1\\2\end{bmatrix}\right\}$
 
@agent154 There are many
 
My solution isn't displaying on mathb.in so I'm not going to bother putting it on there... But lets just say I solved for two vectors $\begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\\z\end{bmatrix}$ so that the whole set were pairwise orthogonal and then scaled down the two I found.
Where I really felt clever was where I came up with $\begin{bmatrix}-b-c\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}-y-z\\y\\z\end{bmatrix}=0‌​\iff\begin{bmatrix}b\\c\end{bmatrix}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}2y+z\\y+2z\end{bmatrix}=0$. Then I just picked two nice $y$ and $z$ and solved for $b$ and $c$.
Though that may have been just blind luck as I picked $y=1$ and $z=2$ so that $2y+z=4$ and $y+2z=5$. $4b+5c=0$ was easy to solve then, but that wasn't by any means intentional.
That second one is my solution. Is it flawed?
There we are
 
 
2 hours later…
7:45 AM
Hi all. What should I do when an accepted answer is wrong?
I commented and notified the answerer, but nothing was done.
 
Buyer beware :)
 
8:35 AM
Find the number of positive integers less than or equal to 6300 which are not divisible by 3,5 and 7. I think the answer is 6300-60=6240
 
Hi all!
 
@nullgeppetto hey there
 
@robjohn, am I right?
 
8:54 AM
@Sush I get 2880
@Sush Do you mean not divisible by 105 or not divisible by 3, 5, or 7?
 
@robjohn, not divisible by 3,5, And 7.Where am I wrong?
 
@Sush So not divisible by 105.
@Sush That would be 6240
However, when you say them separately like that, it sounds as if you are asking the other question.
 
Sorry I will be more precise next time.
 
@Sush No, your question, which says "and", is correct.
 
@robjohn, Thank you.
 
 
3 hours later…
12:12 PM
Hello !
@robjohn hi
I would be thankfull for an answer , preferrable a simple one ( im no expert )
 
Greetings
 
@Chris'ssis hi
anyone here willing to answer my question ?
Cmon guys , I want to become a supersaiyan 2 mathematician :)
Or girls ...µ
bye guys and girls :)
 
This morning I created this one ...$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\sqrt[\large2n+2]{\prod_{k=1}^{2n+2}\psi \left(\frac{1}{k} \right)}-\sqrt[\large2n]{\prod_{k=1}^{2n}\psi \left(\frac{1}{k} \right)}\right)$$
 
later
 
12:37 PM
Have you seen this question? math.stackexchange.com/questions/584391/…
 
@MatsGranvik Nice.
 
@Chris'ssis Is $\psi$ the digamma function?
 
@MatsGranvik Yes.
 
 
1 hour later…
1:59 PM
Speaking of the argument of the Riemann zeta function. The argument does not say anything about the zeros, does it?
Arg[Zeta[x+I*y]]
 
Let $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n\in \mathbb R$ and $f(x)=a_1\sin x+a_2\sin 2x+\ldots+a_n\sin nx$ such that $|f(x)|\leq|\sin x|$ for every $x\in \mathbb R$. Prove that $|a_1+2a_2+3a_3+\ldots+na_n|\leq1$.
Please prove without using of Derivation. Only by triangular equalities
 
2:27 PM
@DonLarynx how touching
 
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