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18:00
@BrianM.Scott Now the author says this:
@OldJohn Ah! Rudolf?
If $\mathfrak I''$ was some other topology such that $f$ was continuous, we would still have $\mathfrak I''\subset f^*(\Bbb I)$
@JonasTeuwen Nah - I prefer not to give personal names to food :)
"So the topology $\Bbb I$ carried to $Y$ by $f^*$ is the weakest or smalles topology such that $f$ is continuous"
@PeterTamaroff Where did $\Bbb I$ come from ?
18:01
@BrianM.Scott It is the identification topology on $X/\sim_f$ induced by $\pi_f$
@BrianM.Scott apparently his author uses "identification topology" instead of "quotient topology"
Ah. I normally understand $\Bbb I$ to be the closed unit interval, and I didn’t notice that you’d defined it.
@BrianM.Scott =P
@BrianM.Scott Now I assume he is talking about a topology $\mathfrak I''$ such that our original "boring" $f:X\to Y$ were continuous.
@PeterTamaroff Yes, a topology on $Y$.
@BrianM.Scott He says we would have $\mathfrak I''\subset f^*(\mathbb I)$ for any topology $\mathfrak I''$ on $Y$ such that $f$ is continuous. Should it be evident why this is so? Maybe I should re read?
18:09
Have you investigated what happens if $U$ is open in $Y$ but is not the image under $f^*$ of any member of $\Bbb I$?
take a typical open set U in the given topology of Y. look at its pre-image under f*.
@DavidWheeler OK, let me see.
well, you already know that f* is continuous
@DavidWheeler Yes, so $f^*{}^{-1}(\mathfrak I)\subset \mathbb I$
so you get an open set in the identification topology.
18:12
Where $\mathbb I$ is the indentification.
@DavidWheeler Yes.
but what are those open sets?
@DavidWheeler Equivalence classes?
I mean, "composed of" equivalence classes.
isn't it true that ${f^*}^{-1}(U)$ is open iff $\pi_f^{-1}({f^*}^{-1}(U))$ is open?
@DavidWheeler Use f^*{}^{-1}
@DavidWheeler Yes.
and is it true that the last set is just $f^{-1}(U)$?
18:17
@DavidWheeler Yes.
so if f is to be continuous.....
@DavidWheeler So if $f$ is to be continuous, we must have that any topology on $Y$ is contained in $f^*(\mathbb I)$
OK.
it helps to deal with a "concrete" example
Nonsense. =P
@DavidWheeler OK. The author gives the example of "covering the circle with the real line"
And two more
take X = I, the unit interval on the real line, and take Y to be the real plane
18:21
@DavidWheeler OK.
define f(t) = (cos(2πt),sin(2πt))...this is continuous with the "usual topologies"
@DavidWheeler What is the domain?
$\Bbb R$?
the unit interval
we could take all of R, but it doesn't make it any clearer.
if you want to use R, we can
@DavidWheeler No, its OK.
ok, now explicitly say what $\pi_f$ is.
18:25
@DavidWheeler It is the set of numbers such that $t-t'=n$ an integer, right?
no that is [t].
given a real number t, what is $\pi_f(t)$?
@DavidWheeler Give me a second. I'll jot down something
i suppose the simplest way to get a concrete expression for $\pi_f(t)$ is to use the "floor function"
@DavidWheeler $\pi_f$ maps each $t$ to it's equivalence class.
In this case we have that $t\sim_f t'$
whenever
yes, but what are those equivalence classes?
18:30
$\sin(2\pi t)=\sin(2\pi t')$ and $\cos(2\pi t)=\cos(2\pi t')$
@DavidWheeler I think the function is one one.
@DavidWheeler You said the domain was $[0,1]$ right?
Oh, OK.
well, specifically, $\pi_f(t) = [t - \lfloor t \rfloor]$
$\sin(2\pi t)=\sin(2\pi t')\iff t-t'=n$, am I crazy?
no, you're not crazy
but what you wrote isn't true
@DavidWheeler Where?
two sines can be equal without their arguments being a difference of 2pi
for example sin(pi) = sin(0)
however, if sin(x) = sin(x') AND cos(x) = cos(x'), then x - x' = $2\pi k$
where k is an integer.
18:39
@DavidWheeler Yes, I meant that.
My fault.
so yes, [t] = {t+k: k in Z}
@DavidWheeler In this case $2\pi t-2\pi t'=2\pi n$ so $t-t'=n$
@DavidWheeler OK.
ok, f maps 0 to (1,0), yes?
and f is 1-1 until we get to 1, and then we've "identified" 0 and 1.
@DavidWheeler Right.
if we keep going, we just "wrap another unit around the circle"
so we're not really gaining anything from considering R instead of [0,1]
18:42
@DavidWheeler OK.
we're just doing the same thing "more times"
[1,2] gets mapped to the same points as [0,1]
in fact f(1+t) = f(t)
@DavidWheeler Yes.
it's "easier to think about" just the unit interval.
ok, what is an open set of the circle, under the relative topology in $\Bbb R^2$?
@DavidWheeler An arc.
an open arc, yes...which is just an intersection of an open disk and the circle.
actually "unions of open arcs" but its ok just to consider basic open sets.
18:45
@DavidWheeler Yeah.
now, what is the pre-image of an open arc?
@DavidWheeler Well, it depends.
listening....
@DavidWheeler It the arc doesn't unclude $(0,0)$ then it is an open interval. However, if it includes $(0,0)$ we get something like $[0,a)\cup(b,1]$?
18:48
@DavidWheeler Oh but that is open in $[0,1]$.
Se we're good.
right...but the point is, f isn't an open map.
@DavidWheeler It doesn't map open sets of $[0,1]$ into open sets of $S^1$?
@DavidWheeler How do you define an open map?
what does f map the open set (b,1] to?
@DavidWheeler To an arc from the fourth quadrant up to $(1,0)$
yes, and including (1,0)
and in $S^1$, f((b,1]) has a boundary point....
so the image of an open set isn't necessarily open
18:54
@DavidWheeler In the boundary of what?
how does $f^*$ fix this?
@DavidWheeler Give me a few.
f maps the open (in I = [0,1]) set (b,1] to the half-open arc from $(\cos(2\pi b), \sin(2\pi b))$ to (1,0)
@DavidWheeler Yes. Iwas writing something :P
@DavidWheeler We have $f^*:[0,1]/\sim_f \to S^1$. Now there should be one peculiar open set in $[0,1]/\sim_f$,
the identification topology "fixes" this like so: since 0~1, any neighborhood of 1, must also include a neighborhood of 0, so we can't just take (b,1], we have to add some [0,a) as well.
19:00
@DavidWheeler OK.
naively: we "glue" or "paste" 0 to 1, so the two half-open intervals become a single open arc.
@DavidWheeler I see.
so, the identification topology (in this instance) gets rid of two kinds of open sets: (b,1] and [0,a)
@DavidWheeler I see.
the mapping f* becomes a homeomorphism under these conditions (its bijective, and since its open, it's inverse is continuous)
19:04
@DavidWheeler =) OK. I will go and eat something. I'll be back shortly.
@DavidWheeler So the unit interval glued by the ends is homeomorphic to $S^1$
I guess we con do this with any curve, right? Any path in $\Bbb R^2$
(bounded)
don't jump to conclusions...the figure 8 is not homeomorphic to the circle.
19:34
@DavidWheeler I meant an "open" curve
look at anon's link
the possible "circuits" in a curve matter
19:51
@DavidWheeler I meant just a line from a point to another, a bounded line, just a path connecting two dots, no crossings, no weird stuff going on
@Matt How did your exams go?
20:09
hi @FortuonPaendrag
@KannappanSampath It is soo good to see you again, Kannappan!! How have you been?
Hello, skullpatrol.
20:21
@Geekster: You cannot check if $1$ is in the list of natural numbers if you cannot check any equalities whatsoever. You can only compute new numbers, and pretend you don't know what they are (since it seems directly checking a number's identity is forbidden). If you can perform multiple computations on the numbers in the collection and check if and when they give the same results (which involves checking equalities), then it's possible via checking $ab=b$ in the way I described in my comment.
For any $b$ in the collection, if $ab=b$ holds true for every other $a$ then $b=0$; we can discard these from the collection and then check if there exists an $a$ such that $ab=b$ for every nonzero $b$. If there is, then it is $1$, else there is no $1$. The only exception to this should be if the collection only contains $0$'s and $1$'s.
If you want an explanation for the downvotes (beyond simply that MSE is made up of jerks), consider the following question: You have a collection of sticks, and wish to find which one is the largest, but the only thing you're allowed to do is break them or burn them (you can never directly compare two sticks). This is what it feels like reading your question.
4
hi @Mike
hi @HenningMakholm
20:48
Good night!
"chair" and "department" of faculty - are they the same thing?
synonyms?
@Nimza "Chair" means "position" usually.
Like "he holds the chair of director of ....."
???
@PeterTamaroff mmm.... here is an example of use
".. is a student at Chair of Mathematical Physics, Faculty of ..."
so it is a bad translation?
@Nimza Some universities use that nomenclature, because in principle they have a one-to-one correspondence between organizational units and named professorships, in which case "chair" becomes a quaint local name for department.
It doesn't seem to be used at the majority of universities in the western world today, though.
@HenningMakholm so interesting, thanks
21:00
@HenningMakholm My answer here is not really helpfull, is it?
@PeterTamaroff Dunno. There are scary-looking formulas involving integrals that make me disinclined to even try to understand the question.
@HenningMakholm Heheheh OK.
I deleted it. I'll try to think about it nevertheless.
@PeterTamaroff Did you see that did did it?
However, perhaps what the OP needs most is something that targets his apparent understanding that there is something "indeterminate" about the limit itself. (It seems to hint that he thinks limits are something that operate on particular formulas, rather than on sequences).
@HenningMakholm Hmmm right.
21:13
@PeterTamaroff FWIW, I think it is slightly bad form to edit away the contents of the post in addition to deleting. I have trouble seeing what purpose it serves, and it only makes it more difficult for the curious to find the original text, and tends to make curiousity-inclined people actually curious.
hi @JasperLoy
user19161
@skullpatrol Hi!
Welcome back @FortuonPaendrag
user19161
@jonas How is her fever now? Also, I hope you are better now too.
21:31
@HenningMakholm I'll try and add something there ;)
@JasperLoy She is fine. My temperature is 34.9°C lol.
22:00
hey
@FortuonPaendrag I asked Kannappan yesterday on skype to come back to math.se
@BenjaLim It seems that it worked, if only for a short time.. :(
@FortuonPaendrag Commutative Algebra
@BenjaLim Ahahahaha. Definitely a nuke ;)
@FortuonPaendrag Maybe only a tomahawk cruise missile?
22:05
@BenjaLim Or it is a chicken that you are killing and not a mosquito.
hahahahahahahhaha
@FortuonPaendrag Do you do algebra?
@BenjaLim Not really. My past year was almost entirely Analytic, although I did read some algebra on my own.
user19161
@JonasTeuwen Another similarity between us. I usually have very low temperatures as well!
@JasperLoy Oh, you do? :-).
@BenjaLim you, on the other hand, seem to be a big algebra guy
22:07
@FortuonPaendrag Where are you studying now?
@FortuonPaendrag I also do fourier analysis :D
user19161
@BenjaLim Anyway, he seems so determined, so I won't ask him again.
@BenjaLim At Colorado College, in the U.S. It's a liberal arts school.
@FortuonPaendrag You're from dehli yes?
@FortuonPaendrag I have been to dehli.
@BenjaLim India, yes. Not quite Delhi. It's a city called Hyderabad. But Delhi is cool to I suppose
user19161
@BenjaLim Do you mean Delhi?
22:08
@JasperLoy yes
user19161
Dehli is not Delhi, hahahaha.
user19161
Next thing you will say is deli.
Michael Krohn-Dehli (born 6 June 1983 in Copenhagen) is a Danish footballer who currently plays as a midfielder for Danish club Brøndby IF and for the Denmark national football team. Club career He began playing football at Rosenhøj BK in Denmark, after that he played for Danish clubs Hvidovre IF and Brøndby IF. The midfielder made his debut for Ajax on 17 September 2006 in the league match Roda JC – Ajax (2–0). Krohn-Dehli played for a number of Danish clubs before joining Ajax from Brøndby IF. Krohn-Dehli excelled as a youth team player for Ajax under Danny Blind. In 2004 however, he w...
@FortuonPaendrag Hydrebad.....
@FortuonPaendrag I find the way it's cooked to be very inspiring
@Benjalim OF course. We make the best biryani in the world
user19161
22:10
@FortuonPaendrag That city sounds like a vegetable name.
hahahahahahaha
@FortuonPaendrag I have some pakistani friends that claim that the briyani in pakistan is better than anywhere in india...
user19161
I am still waiting for them to delete 8 accounts. I am keeping 3 though.
@Ben Oh, they've never eaten at Paradise or at the Alpha hotel in Hyderabad.
@FortuonPaendrag Once some friends from india made briyani the traditional way
with copper pots sealed with dough
user19161
22:11
@ben Can you tell me if Munkres Algebraic Topology is any good?
@JasperLoy It's a lot more rigorous than hatcher :D
user19161
@BenjaLim Ah good. It seems there are a number of people who think Hatcher is handwaving too much.
@JasperLoy Hatcher has lots of pictures, that should make you cautious.
Way too many pictures to be a respectable math textbook.
user19161
@FortuonPaendrag Yes, though some people like it. Rudin's 3 books have no pictures!
@BenjaLim Wow. That must have taken a lot of effort. Biryani is not easy to make.
22:13
IIRC it took about 3 - 4 hours
user19161
@BenjaLim But it is very seldom used in courses these days if you look around.
That is because he does not treat $\pi_1$
user19161
@BenjaLim Which is now covered in his first book.
@FortuonPaendrag Why do you think I'm big on algebra?
@JasperLoy IMHO, Rudin's real and complex analysis is the perfect example of a Math Textbook. Starts from scratch and will exhaust you. In a good way.
user19161
22:15
@FortuonPaendrag Though it leaves many important things to the exercises sometimes.
user19161
@BenjaLim Since you are always talking about it?
@BenjaLim Algebraic Topology and Commutative Algebra and Matrix Lie Groups are all I've heard you talk about. Hint much? ;)
user19161
I also hate those books which omit too many proofs.
user19161
@ben tb says though that Bredon is full of errors. But if you can fill in the gaps I think it is superb.
@JasperLoy I guess the first part of spivak's calculus on manifolds would have been a better example
user19161
22:19
@FortuonPaendrag Spivak is a weird guy. He writes a calculus book that is damn long and a calculus on manifolds book that is damn short.
@JasperLoy Come on. You must admit that the contents are very good.
user19161
@FortuonPaendrag He also wrote 5 volumes of differential geometry haha!
user19161
But I wonder how many people bother reading through all of them.
@JasperLoy Five? Wow..
user19161
@FortuonPaendrag Yes, I thought they are so famous everyone knows.
22:22
I must be very ignorant then. :(
@JasperLoy thanks for the heads up on bredon
@FortuonPaendrag :D yes that is true...
@FortuonPaendrag Just wondering, I think that $\Bbb{Q} \otimes_\Bbb{Z} \Bbb{Q}$ is not finitely generated as a $\Bbb{Z}$ - module yes?
@JasperLoy I find AM more readable than Hatcher.
Good evening folk(s)
how can you solve a boolean formula which is so impossibly large, you can't ever hope to read it?
I'm off now guys
bye!!
@BenjaLim $\Bbb Q\otimes_{\Bbb Z}\Bbb Q\cong\Bbb Q$ I believe, which is not finitely generated
22:35
@anon really?
let me write it out
Yes I know $\Bbb{Q}$ is not finitely generated as a $\Bbb{Z}$ - module.
@anon Yes I think it is true that as abelian groups $\Bbb{Q} \otimes_\Bbb{Z} \Bbb{Q} \cong \Bbb{Q}$.
$$\frac{a}{b}\otimes\frac{c}{d}=d(\frac{a}{db})\otimes \frac{c}{d}=\frac{a}{bd}\otimes c=\frac{ac}{bd}\otimes1$$
whoah what the
Scary man...
Get away from me, freak!
@anon Also I think you can show that you have a unique linear map from $\Bbb{Q}$ to any other module $N$
if you have a bilinear map $B : Q \times Q \to N$
22:38
--
@JonasTeuwen who?
@OldJohn Nobody. Just wanted to say this 8-).
You have $p : Q \times Q \to Q$ that sends $(a,b)$ to $ab$
@anon no just want $\Bbb{Q}$ to satisfy the universal prop.
@JonasTeuwen Great :)
yes, rational multiplication works.
22:39
@JonasTeuwen I sometimes shout something similar when I am out with my wife - just to annoy her :)
@DavidWheeler and then you define the map $L : Q \to N$ as $L(q) = B(1,q)$
@OldJohn :P. Haha.
the map on "elementary rationals" @DavidWheeler
"Who ARE you?" ... "Why are you following me???"
@JonasTeuwen What anon did above was just algebraic manipulation
and you have to be careful when doing it because the tensor product was just a $\Bbb{Z}$ - module
and not over $\Bbb{Q}$.
22:41
I know. Just... whatever.
@OldJohn Mine might be a bit stranger to say.
I only used $\Bbb Z$-linearity of $\otimes$
@BenjaLim you mean "only pull out integers in front"?
@anon Here's a cooler way:
no I can't do it my way.
I have to extend scalars first.....
@DavidWheeler You can't put $q(a \otimes b)$ where $q$ is rational
@FortuonPaendrag I have work on fourier theory now.
bye guys!
no, you have to do what anon did
fortunately, Q is divisible.
We're all clear on what's allowed and what isn't, Benja's just saying one needs to be careful when the scalars are restricted as a sort of general feature of using algebraic manipulations to make arguments about tensor products.
I think
22:46
i was thinking of the map $\frac{a}{b} \otimes \frac{c}{d} \mapsto \frac{ac}{bd}$
that works, doesn't it?
23:03
@DavidWheeler Yes. The calculation should look suspiciously similar to chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/5746931#5746931
In general if $f:R \to S$ is an epimorphism of rings and $A_S, {}_S B$ are $S$-modules thought of as $R$ modules, then $A \otimes_S B \cong A \otimes_R B$. Or more simply $S \otimes_R S \cong S$. Two standard cases are $S=R/I$ where it is easy, and $S = T^{-1} R$ is a localization of $R$ (by inverting some elements $T$). The latter case is proved exactly as in the previous calculation.
If you see notation like $k(\mathfrak{p})$ lying around, this little fact can sometime greatly simplify your understanding of what is going on: they are just saying a bunch of tensor products don't care what ring you tensor over.
23:27
@KannappanSampath Core exercises of chapter 6 (Isaacs CTFG) are #1,2,3,7,12,17,18 ; I've not found M-groups helpful in my work (4,5,6,9,10,11) ; I've found 8,13,14,16,19,20,21 helpful in my work.
@JackSchmidt i still struggle with what a tensor product is. not "a construction" of something that satisfies the universal property...but something a bit more hard to explain
BejaLim has sort of gone "tensor-crazy" he sees them 'everywhere" now
It's a loading dock for bilinear maps to pass down to. :-)
@BenjaLim: Sorry I left you hanging. You are correct. You are correct, the tensor product is not finitely generated, since it is equal to $\mathbb Q$ no?.
@DavidWheeler I just think of it as letting you multiply modules together. This is particularly sane if one of the modules is a ring. "Bilinear" is code for "distributive multiplication". Good examples are $k[x] \otimes_k k[y] = k[x,y]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[i] \otimes_\mathbb{Z} \mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}] = \mathbb{Q}[i,\sqrt{2}]$. Also $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \otimes A = A/nA$ says make sure $n$ acts as 0.
i've heard several "colloquial" descriptions...a "most general bilinear thingy", a way to turn bilinear maps to morphisms
23:35
Oh, anon already clarified it. @anon, thanks!
right...but there seem to be several "tensor identities" (strictly speaking, isomorphism theorems) that people become familiar with..i have no "intuition" about these...
If it wasn't such complicated notation, I would suggest always thinking of tensor product as being part of a triple: $\operatorname{Hom}(A \otimes B,C)$ is the abelian group consisting of ways to multiply elements of $A$ and $B$ and get an element of $C$.
that's what i mean by "turning bilinear maps to morphisms"
you have A, and B, and instead of a bilnear map from AxB to C, you want "something" that turns that into a morphism straight-across
yeah, it's like an “unevaluated” multiplication. It represents what the multiplication could be. A “formal product” rather than an actual one.
well, sometimes it's an "actual product"
23:40
the formal product is the actual product in polynomial rings, because polynomial rings are themselves pretty formal :-)
Like what does $x^3+2$ mean? “You take $x$ times $x$ times $x$ and add $2$” but what is $x$ times $x$? It is $x^2$ of course! It makes sense because math can handle the abstract and formal, but it also doesn't make “real” sense until you actually substitute $x=3$ to get 3 times 3 times 3 plus 2 is 29.
but then you're using the evaluation homomorphism
exactly. An element of $\operatorname{Hom}(k[x],k)$ that makes sense of the formal products.
@Jack To be really lame: What does a formal polynomial say to a polynomial function? Suit up, Bro.
i always think of polynomials in a single variable as "finite sequences in R (the ring)"...is this wrong?
My wife says the polynomials are going to be legend dairy.
@DavidWheeler It is fine. I just consider that to be formal. I prefer to think of them as recipes for using ring operations.
well, part of a recipe. They are the instructions on how to combine the ingredients, but without the ingredient list! The ingredient list is the evaluation homomorphism.
23:47
@David It is ok, because there is an isomorphism from the direct sum of countably many copies of $R$ to $R[x]$.
well, what lead me to think of them that way, was the defintion of a vector you sometimes see as a function from {0,1,...,n} to F.
@DavidWheeler That is a very good definition. Many things make more sense when you view them as functions. (I don't usually think of them that way, though I didn't understand transfinite sequences until I understood sequences as functions $a_i = a(i)$).
I think it's important to have both a formal and an informal understanding of an idea. The formal definition will usually generalize, and you be sure that a proof using only the formal properties will still be true in the more general context. However, without the informal idea, you cannot be sure the generalization is really the same idea.
If everything is a function, then suddenly everything is a generalization of itself, and you are lost in a land of grey ooze. So it is better if some things are functions, and some things are like functions, and some things can be thought of functions if it is useful that day.
hmmm...the way i think (internally): if we want something "general" the functional point of view is "portable" (we can do little tricks with the domain and co-domain to get various "instances". but if you're "illustrating" (specifying) you need something more "down-to-earth": 'things" (objects).
Hello all, I have a quick question
If I have a set of points on the x,y plane
What is the best way of determining which points have a neighbor less than d distance away?
you can connect the dots, and make a picture? erm....sorry.
23:58
It's kind of a clustering problem, but not really becuase I don't care about the clusters
do you have a LOT of points?
I might
@JGord Look for "plane sweep" algorithms. I'm no expert, but I think this problem was in several of the computational geometry books I read.
let's hear an answer for yes and no
if just a few points: check all distances. If lots of points, that is quadratically many checks. Plane sweep should be linear.
23:59
well, if the number of points is 'small" you can calculate the distance between any two.

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