i.minus.com/ibyjbOzyAs1dn5.png Can somebody please help me with this proof? In this case $\phi$ does not have $x$ as a free variable. I understand that it
should work, but I don't see $x$-free specific things. So it should
not work if we just replace $\phi$ with $\phi(x)$ (i.e. $x$ is a free var in $\phi$), but I don't see where it breaks.