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2:00 PM
Can't I then turn it into Grandi series?
 
@Nimza sry about that, had promised to pick gf up but had forgot
 
Hmm. I guess I could say that if A = -1 + 1 - 1 + 1... then it could either be the series {-1 + 1} or the series {(-1)^k}. Can't I?
 
It's not converge absolutely.
Therefore the interchanging is sometimes illicit.
In fact you can obtain an arrangement such that $\liminf x_n=A$ and $\limsup x_n=B$ for all $A\le B$.
 
hello
 
@jdoe hi
 
2:13 PM
@skullpatrol: If division by zero is undefined, $\tan 90^\circ$ is also undefined?
 
@ガベージコレクタ Correct.
 
Indeed
 
Oops! There was a problem updating your profile:
Display name may only be changed once every 30 days; you may change again in 42 minutes.
I will change my display name soon. Any idea?
 
@ガベージコレクタ skeletor
 
@skullpatrol: I will change to Casper Joy or Casper Toy, does it looks similar to someone?
 
2:20 PM
Even though it were similar to somebody, it would be no sin of you to do that.
 
Hello
 
@ガベージコレクタ He doesn't like you.
 
What mathematics is going on
 
tjenare
 
2:21 PM
Any mathematics.
 
@skullpatrol Who?
 
I've got 4 different topics to study and I can't decide which one!
 
@ガベージコレクタ You know who.
 
Goodbye, everybody.
 
@skullpatrol IC.
@FrankScience Welcome to Math.SeX.
 
2:24 PM
@ガベージコレクタ Did you read the link?
 
@skullpatrol: Yes.
 
@ガベージコレクタ Any questions?
 
@skullpatrol No. Clear enough.
 
@ガベージコレクタ So what is your answer?
 
@skullpatrol Almost the same as the link explains.
 
2:27 PM
@ガベージコレクタ Which is?
 
 
@skullpatrol Your link above.
@jdoe What is the context of this photo?
 
@ガベージコレクタ I asked for your answer.
 
@skullpatrol: First answer is about our intuition, i.e., we cannot divide a pie by zero number of people. Second answer is almost identical to math.stackexchange.com/a/26452/26975
 
You have to make it make sense to you.
 
2:31 PM
@skullpatrol: Do you have mathematics certificates?
 
What do you think about summation techniques like cesaro summation? How should I put this. You can often do algebraic manipulations that seem to make sense, but aren't supported using classic summation of infinite series.
It's kind of confusing me, mentally.
It would seem to make sense that if S = 1 - 1 + 1 - ⋯, then S = 1 - S ⇒ S = 1/2
And in terms of classical summation, it's putting your cart before the horse. But it still seems to have meaning.
 
@GregRos, In general if S is not a well defined number then you should not expect algebraic manipulation of S to provide anything of value
 
Everybody here, I have a question about Math education.
 
@GregRos, in specific cases (like the Euler zeta function) you might have something else in mind that guides or justifies the algebraic manipulation
 
how can we categorize the math subjects in senior high school?
 
2:36 PM
Well, this manipulation does make sense, and the cesaro sum of 1-1 is 0.5. So it would seem like, when I'm saying S = 1 - 1 + 1... S is actually the cesaro sum of the sequence.
 
@ガベージコレクタ Algebra, Geometry, Pre-Calculus
 
but that's not the cesaro summation
I suppose you could just say "For the next three pages "..." means Cesaro summation"
 
@skullpatrol Logarithm belongs to algebra?
 
but that's just obtuse, use sigma or whatever notation everyone else uses for it
 
@ガベージコレクタ Yes.
 
2:38 PM
That's not what I mean. I mean, the cesaro sum of {(-1)^k} is 0.5. When I say, "assuming the sum of the series exists and it is S", and then I write
 
whhat belongs to pre-calculus?
 
S = 1 - S ⇒ S = 0.5, it seems like I've just calculated the cesaro sum.
 
@skullpatrol: The link abcte.org/teach/exam-preparation/mathematics/standards seems to be different from your taxonomy.
 
To put it another way, if I proved the series is cesaro summable, I could do this manipulation, and S would be the cesaro sum. The many ways in which you can define summation of this sort confuse me.
 
I suppose you have calculated the Cesaro sum on the condition that it exists
 
2:40 PM
trig E geometry?
 
@ガベージコレクタ You asked for senior high school, no?
 
@skullpatrol Yes.
 
@GregRos, do all summation methods coincide in the cases when both are defined?
 
I don't know about all of them. Only those I know.
But it seems like the sum of an infinite series should be one thing.
 
@JohanLarsson Pre-calculus has analytic geometry....
 
2:42 PM
analytic continuations are unique
maybe we could define "summation method" in terms of continuations
 
Are there functions which cannot be integrated with one definition, but cannot be integrated in another?
Hmm. I guess if we wanted the summation form that corresponds to integration it would be classical summation.
 
Wait, Given 1 - 1 + 1 - ⋯ Cesaro summable, why is S = 1 - S?
because -S = -1 + 1 - 1 + ⋯ is Cesaro summable and so 1 + -S = S, fine
There are perhaps summation methods and algebraic manipulations such that some part of the proof which seems algebraically fine actually turns a summable sequence into a non-summable one
in which case you could end up with a wrong answer
 
@ガベージコレクタ My taxonomy were the general subjects covered in senior high school.
 
What I mean is: It's not enough to just assume something summable and then do algebra with it, you need to check that each step is again summable
 
@skullpatrol OK.
 
2:48 PM
Of course, I'm not making a formal argument. I'm just thinking about what summation means.
 
which answers the question about which summation methods coincide: (At least) all those for which the algebraic manipulations transform summable sequences into summable sequences, (and they must exist of course)
 
Hmm. It is interesting that from a purely algebraic point of view, you could use any of a dozen summation methods.
So they're all valid in the algebraic sense.
 
hi @Charlie
 
We have a method to calculate a square root by hand. Is there a method to calculate trigonometric function by hand for any angle in radian?
 
Series expansion
 
2:51 PM
There are many algorithms to compute trigonometric functions
 
@jdoe Which one can be done by a human?
 
Series expansion is the one that requires least thought.
 
@ガベージコレクタ, The best for a human would be a big table of values and then ways to reflect and combine them to cover almost all the whole circle
 
best for a human would be using a calculator :)
 
e.g. double angle and sum identities
 
2:55 PM
hi @anon
 
Is there such a thing as a broadest form of series summation, where its set of summable infinite series are a superset of all others?
 
no, because summability methods can give contradictory answers
also hi skull
 
Really? Can you give an example?
 
I just changed my display name, but the change has not taken affect in this chat room.
 
@GregRos I do not have one memorized, am googling.
 
3:02 PM
thanks :)
 
@ガベージコレクタ You said: "First answer is about our intuition, i.e., we cannot divide a pie by zero number of people." Isn't the pie just left undivided?
 
@skullpatrol I ate it alone. :-)
 
I've been taught that you can perform certain algebraic operations on infinite sums only in some cases. For example, you can't do something like $∑(-1)^{k} = ∑(1 - 1) = 0$. However, it seems to me that whatever manipulation you do results in a different series. It's not that some manipulations are legal. It's that all manipulations result in different series, and some of those series don't converge, or converge to a different value.
Does that make sense?
 
you might be interested in ch 9 of Classical and Modern Methods in Summability, somewhat available on google books
 
@GarbageCollector That would be the pie divided by 1 person, no?
 
3:08 PM
I know what you're saying greg
 
yeah, a manipulation is either admitted or not depending on what summation method you're considering
 
@GarbageCollector I was able to read that instantaneously
 
@skullpatrol by zero people if possible.
 
No, manipulations are fine, but they always result in different series. The question is, is this new series convergent or not? Some manipulations are, let's say, "closed" in terms of convergence within a given summation method.
 
not just "is it convergent" but is it equal
 
3:09 PM
@N3buchadnezzar Good.
 
both of ∑(-1)^{k}, ∑(1 - 1) are cesaro convergent
 
@GarbageCollector I'm saying it is possible to divide a pie by 0 people, leave it undivided.
 
@skullpatrol that's one person.
 
perhaps you're confusing dividing n times with dividing by n
 
I think the question whether two series are equal is tricky. It's kind of like equality and equivalence in matrices. If you have $a_{1} + a_{2} + ...$ then turning it into $a_{2} + a_{1} + ...$ seems to result in an equivalent series that is different but probably converges to the same sum as the previous one. Though you might be able to define summations where this isn't the case. This idea seems more elegant to me than saying some manipulations are illegal.
 
3:17 PM
hi @OldJohn is it half-time?
 
Surely any "summation method" should not care about finitely many terms
 
@skullpatrol No - all finished - "we" won :)
 
@OldJohn What was the score?
 
(I mean take a finite initial segment and replace it with any other finite initial segment with the same sum)
 
@skullpatrol We have different perspective. :-)
 
3:18 PM
Oh. I was sort of thinking of flipping e.g. 1-2, 3-4, 5-6.
 
@skullpatrol 2-1, but United missed chances, and ought to have won 5-1
 
like transposing the elements in a predictable way
 
@OldJohn and so many offisdes.
 
@JayeshBadwaik too many, yes
 
@OldJohn but good to see such an awesome attacking game. Missed that for quite some time now.
 
3:19 PM
@JayeshBadwaik Yep - makes for better viewing
 
In fact, the notation $a_{1} + a_{2} + ⋯$ seems kind of deceitful, since summation of an infinite series doesn't actually mean performing the addition operation an infinite number of times.
 
@OldJohn Do you watch any American sports?
 
that's a good point
 
@skullpatrol No - I watch very little sport, really - just a bit of football and maybe tennis
@GregRos Just think of the notation as shorthand for a limit
 
If you say that $$-1 + 1 - 1 + ⋯≠ (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) ⋯$$ that already means your addition operator isn't associative, so it's not an addition operator at all.
@OldJohn I understand the definition, I'm just kind of pondering about different summation methods and notation.
 
3:24 PM
we use a lot of notations in maths which really ought to be straightened out - mainly for historical reasons. Notations of derivatives in calculus are a case in point.
 
What do you mean, notation of derivatives? Isn't the form $$df/dx$$ fairly non-ambiguous?
 
yeah so let's say like
instead of sigma_{n = 1}^infinity a_n
cesaro_{n = 1}^infinity a_n
abel_{n = 1}^infinity a_n
etc.
 
@GregRos well - it is not really a quotient, is it - it is really a limit
 
@GregRos You have to write of which variables is $f$ a function of for instance.
 
Does that matter? I already said I was differentiating by x.
 
3:29 PM
yes it matters
 
Hmm, in a practical sense, why?
 
you can define a differentiation operator "D" such that for f : R -> R, Df is the derivative (another function R -> R)
but if f is a function then df/dx doesn't mean anything, df(x)/dx on the other hand is the derivative of f evaluated at x
 
Hmm. I maybe summation of infinite series was invented under the idea that, while actually performing an infinite number of additions isn't logical, maybe we can define something that's sort of like adding an infinite number of terms, for cases that make sense. Similarly, while dividing by an infinitely small quantity doesn't really make sense, you can define something that's like it, and you get a derivative.
Well, people probably did it before they understood it doesn't make sense. But, urm, I have a point in there, somewhere.
 
@GregRos, Do you know about Cauchy sequences?
 
3:44 PM
Yeah. Don't think I've done them yet though, in school.
 
@GregRos, "infinite number of operations isn't logical" is a very insightful observation which I think Cauchy sequences resolve in a purely finitary way
(In particular the fact that the diagonal of a cauchy sequence of cauchy sequences is a cauchy sequence)
 
I'm not sure what you mean
 
Hello people,I have a quick question after reading something that anon linked me to I came up with an idea that a function f:Q->R can never be continuous?
 
For example, in the case of the most basic summation method. "Sum a_n converges" really means the sequnce a_0, a_0+a_1, a_0+a_1+a_2, a_0+a_1+a_2+a_3, ... is Cauchy
and Cesaro summation convergence is the statement that the sequence a_0, (a_0+a_1)/2, (a_0+a_1+a_2)/3, (a_0+a_1+a_2+a_3)/4, ... is Cauchy
 
Is it different from saying that the sequence of partial sums has a finite limit?
 
3:55 PM
it's equivalent to that
@Pilot, every function Q -> R is continuous,given the discrete topology on Q
 
@Pilot erm - isn't a constant function from Q to R always continuous?
 
Oh ok you are right,I was focusing on its discontinuity on R
I was lookin for a function continuous on Q but discontinuous at some irational point
 
Can't you say something like, f(x) = 0 if x ≠ √2 and f(x) = 1 otherwise? :)
It's certainly continuous in every point in Q. and it's certainly discontinuous in one irrational point.
 
@GregRos or : zero for all x less than $\sqrt{2}$ and one for all values above $\sqrt{2}$
 
As long as your function is discontinuous in a countable number of points in ℝ while being continuous in ℚ, there isn't any problem.
 
4:06 PM
@GregRos that was quite nice example.
 
You could have like, f(x) = 1 for every x where there exists p ∈ ℙ such as that x = √p.
and f(x) = 0 otherwise
 
Thank you
can I say f(x)=1 for all irrational x s but then a set of discontinuities of f would be irrational which is wrong
 
A function that is continuous in all x ∈ ℚ and discontinuous in all x ∉ ℚ doesn't exist.
 
hi @PeterTamaroff
 
can a R -> R function only be discontinuous at countably many points?
 
4:12 PM
@ jdoe no cause R has to be then meager set
 
yes?
I gave two functions, one of which discontinuous in 1 point, and the other discontinuous in a countably infinite number of points.
You can also have a function discontinuous for every x ∈ ℚ.
You just can't have the opposite.
 
@jdoe Yes. Why not?
 
example?
 
What do you mean by countable number of points?
Countably infinite or just countable?
 
f(x) = 1 for every x where there exists p ∈ ℙ such as that x = √p.,this one? so you take p from rationals only?
 
4:16 PM
Countably infinite
 
p is prime, so √p is irrational.
 
@JasperLoy: Hi, I changed my display name.
 
user19161
@GarbageCollector Great, easier to ping now.
 
@JasperLoy: I wanted to change to Casper Joy but @skullpatrol said you don't like me. :-)
 
user19161
@GarbageCollector You should not try to impersonate others.
 
4:18 PM
@JasperLoy Casper Joy sounds funny :-)
@JasperLoy: lets talk about mathematics
 
I've always wondered how a function that goes:
$$f(x) = 0\space if\space x∈ ℝ, f(x) = ab\space for\space x = \frac{a}{b}$$ is in lowest terms
 
@JasperLoy Hmm - you are still catching up with me ...
 
user19161
@OldJohn Well, you are always ahead of me. =)
 
@JasperLoy probably for not much longer
 
@GregRos ?¿
You mean $\Bbb R\setminus \Bbb Q$
 
user19161
4:22 PM
@GregRos Does not make sense since rationals are reals.
 
whoops
 
user19161
And note that real numbers are complex numbers in a sense.
 
Well, I meant if x ∉ ℚ.
 
user19161
So to be precise one has to say for example non-real complex numbers.
 
user19161
In this case, it is just irrational vs rational.
 
4:23 PM
$$\Huge\text{ Garbage Collector}$$ just a test!
 
Yeah, that's what I meant.
 
user19161
@GregRos What do you mean by lowest terms? That itself is not well-defined.
 
Lowest terms is sufficiently well-defined? It's used in many places? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function
Anyway, I think it's possible to understand the function from what I wrote. It was just idle musing. It doesn't have to be perfectly rigorous and formal.
 
Guten tag
 
Ignore its existence if you like.
 
4:25 PM
@EdGorcenski sawubona
I don't speak German, so maybe you are OK with Zulu? :)
 
Another question please: So I needed a continuous function f:Q->R and g:R->R s.t f(x)=g(x) for all rational x s. So if I say f(x)=0 and g(x)=0 for x in R/{sqrt2} and g(x)=1 at x=sqrt 2 .would I be right?
 
what's g(x) for non-rational x's?
 
@EdGorcenski You beat me to the answer with the differentiable question just now :(
 
@OldJohn Hehe, I figured once that comment was made, I may as well answer my own question
 
youtube.com/watch?v=BRRolKTlF6Q I really don't like this video -_-
 
4:30 PM
I don't know why I didn't think of that; this book keeps you on your toes.
 
@EdGorcenski Yep - why not :)
 
It's so stupid.
 
I'm confused about this fractional ideal thing
 
@GregRos if it is any real number than sqrt2 then it is 0
 
Also, I don't speak German either, just some phrases here and there.
I also don't speak Zulu ;)
 
4:31 PM
He defined fractional ideals for a number field K, then started talking about fractional ideals in O_K the ring of integers
 
@EdGorcenski same with me and Zulu ...
I can say hello and goodbye in Zulu - but nothing in between
@EdGorcenski Which Rudin is it from?
 
could that just be a typo?
 
Wow I want to punch this guy in the face.
 
user19161
@GregRos Stay calm dude.
 
user19161
No punching is allowed in this chat.
 
4:34 PM
@OldJohn PMA
 
Yeah but did you see his face. He has this obnoxious smile.
And by his logic you can say that $$\frac{1}{0^{2}}=∞$$
 
@EdGorcenski OK, Never really used that one, but I struggled through about half of Real and Complex Analysis - found some tough problems in there
 
I do like this book
 
@EdGorcenski I think he is a great writer
 
I don't find that his proofs are super slick like some people said; I guess maybe I find that they're slick, but not diabolically so.
I do enjoy the book greatly.
 
4:36 PM
but some people criticise PMA for doing all the topology definitions in one page
 
I prefer that approach. I looked at some of my older analysis books from undergrad
 
user19161
The proof of l'Hospital's rule is the shortest in Rudin.
 
user19161
Essentially he covered all cases at once.
 
And presenting topology stuff later makes the text schizophrenic
 
OK - have fun guys - back later
 
user19161
4:37 PM
Schizophrenia is often misunderstood for split personality.
 
user19161
They are two different things.
 
Split personality is a fictionalized disorder for example.
Schizophrenia may make you believe cats are hunting you
 
I do have cats hunting me.
 
user19161
@GregRos Fictionalised? What do you mean? It does exist.
 
@JasperLoy Actually, it was recently found that the foundational literature on MPD was falsified by an overzealous psychologist, who was also having an affair with the patient.
 
4:40 PM
Alright I hope my function was ok
 
the foundational literature was the work of a single individual and a single patient?
 
his patient
Sybil is a 1973 book by Flora Rheta Schreiber about the treatment of Sybil Dorsett (a pseudonym for Shirley Ardell Mason) for dissociative identity disorder (then referred to as multiple personality disorder) by her psychoanalyst, Cornelia B. Wilbur. The book was made into two movies of the same name, once in 1976 and again as a television movie in 2007. Overview Mason is given the pseudonym "Sybil" by her therapist to protect her privacy. Originally in treatment for social anxiety and memory loss, after extended therapy involving amobarbital and hypnosis interviews, Sybil manifests ...
"The book is believed by Mark Pendergrast and Joan Acocella to have established the template for the later upsurge in the diagnoses of dissociative identity disorders."
 
DID is real, what people refer to as 'split personality disorder' is fictionalized.
 
user19161
@EdGorcenski I have watched videos of these split personality patients before. And no, I don't have schiz or split.
 
there is a difference between fictional and fictionalized
 
user19161
4:42 PM
Yes anon...
 
A 2006 study compared scholarly research and publications on DID and dissociative amnesia to other mental health conditions, such as anorexia nervosa, alcohol abuse and schizophrenia from 1984 to 2003. The results were found to be unusually distributed, with a very low level of publications in the 1980s followed by a significant rise that peaked in the mid-1990s and subsequently rapidly declined in the decade following.
Compared to 25 other diagnosis, the mid-90's "bubble" of publications regarding DID was unique. In the opinion of the authors of the review, the publication results suggest a period of "fashion" that waned, and that the two diagnoses "[did] not command widespread scientific acceptance".
 
cool
but did does exist, I have seen him answer many questions on mse
 
That's from en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dissociative_identity_disorder#History last paragraph; other text shows the historical link between DID and MPD/other names
 
user19161
@anon Haha, I was wondering yesterday if you=did.
 
The lack of scientific rigor in the psychiatric fields is mind-bogglingly terrifying.
 
4:47 PM
too many variables ignored and unaccounted for
 
user19161
Hey @anon are you at work now?
 
I work in a couple hours
I am unable to be online while at work
 
And the fragmentation of psychology into distinct "camps" is extremely harmful in general; I have submitted some research grants that included a behavioral psychologist (actually two, world class researchers both) as part of the team, and we just happened to draw a primary reviewer from a competing branch
 
Hello, any Canadian here?
 
@JasperLoy : I sent you a new email, check it out!
 
4:48 PM
He eviscerated the proposal without regard to the scientific merit contained therein; in fact, he willfully ignored sections where we cited prior research to justify the proposal.
 
Can you pretend to have factitious disorder?
 
user19161
@Gigili Mahnax and Mr Shiny are if you need any.
 
@EdGorcenski, fascinating !!
 
user19161
@GarbageCollector What you sent me is not a secret, Herbert Voss is a well known figure.
 
The secondary reviewers gave us a solid average score (average of about 2, lower is better); primary reviewer gave us an average score of 7.
 
4:50 PM
@JasperLoy But his age might be confidential :-)
 
Result: So sorry, no funding for you.
 
@EdGorcenski, that is a real shame sorry to hear that
 
@JasperLoy I know, but none of them are available right now.
Thanks anyway.
 
Eh, we can re-submit.
Hopefully draw a different prime reviewer, add in some more team expertise on the technical side.
 
what does [O_K : a] mean when a is a nonzero ideal of O_K?
O_K is the ring of integers of a number field, so it's an ideal too
these are all finitely generated O_K-modules, so I guess it's something to do with the number of generators?
I'm confused :S
 

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