« first day (4227 days earlier)      last day (914 days later) » 
00:00 - 23:0023:00 - 00:00

23:06
@Zionmyceliaadamancy tbh practical experience shows P != NP, why is it not solved?
Nobody has practically experienced a number that disproves the collatz conjecture either :p
true
but isnt the problem about proving all P = NP?
or am i bad at reading theorems
23:24
P = NP means "all".
@Seggan It's really easy to show you can do something quickly, but good luck proving there's absolutely no way to do that. Even though our experience would strongly indicate P != NP, we just don't have a way to prove that.
@Seggan Practical experience shows that all odd numbers are prime, barring a few exceptions
It's provable that all primes >2 are odd.
That's not what I said :P
@Seggan Practical experience is, for lack of a better word, useless. For example, literally all of these
mm
ok then
23:34
@Seggan Pi provably never ends, but there's no proof that it never repeats. For all we know, after 10↑↑↑↑↑↑10 digits, pi just repeats 1212121212 forever. It's very, very likely that it never does repeat, but there's no proof to that effect.
@forest This is wrong
If a number is irrational, it's digits will never repeat
@Zionmyceliaadamancy Isn't 1/3 an irrational number?
Oh, what's the term then?
Irrational means that it cannot be expressed in the form p/q where p, q are integers that do not share a common factor
23:36
(My math is suck)
@forest iirc irrational is when it cannot be written as a fraction
Oh yeah. What term am I mixing it up with then?
@forest You may be thinking of "normal", which means that each digit (in base 10) is distributed equally in the decimal expansion of pi
Ah.
This is equivalent to saying that "all possible sequences of digits will appear in pi", which is commonly claimed, but isn't yet proven
23:38
Yep.
It's very likely though, but no proof exists.
the first 100,000,000.000.000 digits of pi do look completely normal
Ye, basically every substantial decimal expansion of pi shows it to be normal
@Zionmyceliaadamancy so does that mean eulers number appears in pi? :P
@Seggan Now you're getting into "undefined" territory (stuff like infinity = infinity not being true). :P
@Seggan Not really
23:40
743
Q: Does $\pi$ contain all possible number combinations?

Chani $\pi$ Pi Pi is an infinite, nonrepeating $($sic$)$ decimal - meaning that every possible number combination exists somewhere in pi. Converted into ASCII text, somewhere in that infinite string of digits is the name of every person you will ever love, the date, time and manner of your death, and...

"Normal" generally means that all finite sequences of digits appear in the expansion of a number
There are stronger conditions for all non-finite sequences
So any of n digits of e will fit in pi (if the conjecture is true), but n can't be infinity.
It can't necessarily be infinity
(If it's just "1111..." then you could say it fits, if e also ends in "1111...")
For example, it is entirely possible that after some N digits, the digits of pi are identical to the digits of e
But that's a different condition to being normal
23:43
@Zionmyceliaadamancy Doesn't Euler's identity make it possible to disprove that?
@forest Of course, we know that e cannot end in 11111....., as it is also irrational
@forest Possibly? I'm not that well-read on this kind of number theory
ah
(Neither am I, clearly!)
There are some conjectures that there are no proofs for and which no one even knows how to start finding a proof (except proof by counterexample using brute force, which is impractical), like a Fermat prime larger than 65537.
I suspect that, if it had been disproven, you could find it somewhat easily
Whereas at least there's a lot of research into proofs relating to pi.
was brute force ever used to disprove a theorem?
23:50
Yeah.
In fact, one of the shortest papers came from that.
Euler's conjecture, I think. Lemme find it.
@Seggan I believe Legrange's number was discovered by brute force
all numbers were discovered by brute force
they didnt ask to be born
@thejonymyster Nah, no one discovered TREE(3) by brute force. No one could.
Brute force means starting from 0 and counting up (or otherwise counting in some pattern) until you hit upon a number.
@UnrelatedString the issue is its too wordy for a cmc though itll be like, annoying as fuck
@forest Yes and no
23:53
or something idk
@Zionmyceliaadamancy That's the meaning in cryptography, at least (more or less).
ill try anyway though cmc time let me think of how to phrase this
If something shows that "if A, then either X, Y, Z", then all you have to do is brute force proofs for "if A, then X", "if A, then Y" and "if A, then Z", which can limit your search field
Yeah, I was just saying that not all numbers are found by brute force, not that you can't use brute force for proofs.
E.g. take a random number 3714147959877322721152051393610902386023347521548091461027631636332873169214. I'd bet my life that no one has ever come up with this number, but I didn't have to search for it randomly until I found it. I came up with it on the fly (well, my computer did).
i think about that number all of the time
23:56
lel
@forest Well, I discovered 3714147959877322721152051393610902386023347521548091461027631636332873169215 by brute force by adding 1 to that number :P
That's not brute force then. :^)
guys lets keep doing this bit but wiht numbers that fill up thye screen
Depending on how you define "brute force", the inductive principle implies that you can discover all numbers by brute force :P
Not uncomputable numbers.
23:57
Yep, all numbers
that one depends on how you defined "discover"
Not without hypercomputation.
if i iterate through english rayo style ill certainly define some numbers
a (nope not a number) b (nope not a number).... aaz, aba, abb, abc... zzz, aaaa...
Define positive integers by induction, define negatives by introducing subtration, define rationals by defining division, then introduce the completeness axiom to define all real numbers :P
Peano axioms ftw :P
@Zionmyceliaadamancy What about a number (as a function) where calculating it with arbitrary precision would result in solving the halting problem?
does that number exist
@forest Sure, an arbitrary Turing machine may not be able to calculate it, but we can show that it exists
@thejonymyster Yes
okay :-)
00:00 - 23:0023:00 - 00:00

« first day (4227 days earlier)      last day (914 days later) »