All four currently negatively voted answers on this page fail to address the OP's question; they are mostly reiterating what the OP already said/premised in their question.
I suggest to close this Conjecture about improving the Cauchy–Bunyakovsky–Schwarz inequality. It is a seemingly random conjecture without motivation or background. I tried to explain in the comments that it is just an obfuscated version of (but equivalent to) the CBS inequality, but apparently did not succeed.
From riemann functional equation
Zeta(s)=zeta(1-s)
So if zeta(s)=0
Zeta(1-s)=0
So s=1-s
s=1/2
So whenever zeta(s)=0 its real part is always 1/2
Is it correct i feel its not correct?
While working on the Collatz problem, I came across this answer. I understand everything except for one thing: that for $n$ odd running Collatz2($n$) is exactly like running Collatz($n+1$). I understand that the first iteration of Collatz2 takes us to $3n+3$ which is a multiple of 3. However, I d...
I was watching youtube videos about maths and thinking about the Collatz conjecture and the video happened to be about the golden ratio and how it was discovered. It was first thought of as an infinite equation of $$1+\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{1+...}}}$$ So on and so forth. instead of trying...
From riemann functional equation
Zeta(s)=zeta(1-s)
So if zeta(s)=0
Zeta(1-s)=0
So s=1-s
s=1/2
So whenever zeta(s)=0 its real part is always 1/2
Is it correct i feel its not correct?
