please close this PSQ. At some point in question the asker writes "full justification required". Perhaps they should know that "full context is also required".
here it is claimed that $\mathbb Q$ is formally not a subset of $\mathbb R$. For me, this statement is false, but some users seem to support it. Do I miss somthing ? A rational number surely is a real number , right ?
Conjecture:
Given $a,b\in\mathbb N_+$ with $\gcd(a,b)=1$ there are no
$m,n\in\mathbb N\ni 0$ such that $(a-1)(b-1)-1=ma+nb$, but such
$m,n\in\mathbb N$ exists for all $N\geq(a-1)(b-1)$.
I guess it is possible to construct $m,n\in\mathbb N$ such that
$(a-1)(b-1)=ma+nb$ but I can't see how right ...
Conjecture:
Given $a,b\in\mathbb N_+$ with $\gcd(a,b)=1$ there are no
$m,n\in\mathbb N\ni 0$ such that $(a-1)(b-1)-1=ma+nb$, but such
$m,n\in\mathbb N$ exists for all $N\geq(a-1)(b-1)$.
I guess it is possible to construct $m,n\in\mathbb N$ such that
$(a-1)(b-1)=ma+nb$ but I can't see how right ...
