I want to clear up any misconceptions that may arise from my question. I'm not claiming to have actually proved the Collatz conjecture, rather I am asking if this would be the simplest (simplest being relative, of course) way to go about proving it.
First, it's trivial to prove that all even numb...
My four posts (this, this, this and this) got deleted by community bot due to inactivity. I don’t think these post deserve to be deleted. Someone in future may find it useful. I would appreciate if you vote to undelete these posts.
I had closed math.stackexchange.com/q/4707567/42969 as a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1003117/42969, it is exactly the same inequality (only that one variable of the three variables is set to 1). Another gold-badge holder (who answered both the old and the new question) then reopened it. I suggest to close the question as a duplicate again.
My four posts (this, this, this and this) got deleted by community bot due to inactivity. I don’t think these post deserve to be deleted. Someone in future may find it useful. I would appreciate if you vote to undelete these posts.
