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07:11
@Robert To me the most natural way to do it would be to homotope $g_1 \circ f_1$ to $g_1 \circ f_2$ by $g_1 \circ F$ and then homotope $g_1 \circ f_2$ to $g_2 \circ f_2$ by $G \circ f_2$.
Yo Balarka, there's 39 questions that have close votes. Check it out.
@BalarkaSen, that's the one I've seen before. When I tried it before looking at the solution, I came up with the above, so to me it seems "most natural".
@KarlKronenfeld, thanks!
@RobertCardona Fair enough.
@DonLarynx Um. Is there a particular reason I would want to check it out?
I don't really like doing review jobs. I hardly participate in the mains anymore, except for voting things up or down.
@RobertCardona So, what's up?
Working through some notes on Complex Analysis.
I see. let me know when you learn something interesting in topology.
07:20
I will!
07:33
You have 7k reputation
Oh, right, I forgot high rep is needed to review close votes.

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