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04:07
9 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
Continuity of norm can be considered as a special case of this for $E=\{0\}$.
9 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
On page 36 it is mentioned that in a metric space $X$ the function $$d_E(X)=\operatorname{dist}(x,E)$$ is continuous for any non-empty set $E\subseteq X$.
I thought of this as - "Norm of x that is $||x||$, as the distance of a point $x$ in space $X$ from Origin"
so $||x|| = Inf \{ d_{{0}} (x) : x \in X\}$ is continuous on $X$
so are we basically saying this
$||.|| :X \rightarrow \Bbb{R} $ is a continuous function?
also
2)
I think in the above conversation we were trying to show that the mapping $F(x) \rightarrow ||F(x)||$ is continuous
may be can I call this a continuous transformation?
04:53
@BAYMAX Yes, that is what we are claiming.
In fact $\|x\|=d(0,x)$.
@BAYMAX Since norm is continuous and $F$ is continuous, their composition $x\mapsto \|F(x)\|$ is also continuous.
Nice one there!
is that we call a continuous transformation?
or there is some other terminology for it?
@BAYMAX I guess it would be ok, but continuous function (and perhaps continuous map) seem to be used more often.
IIRC Limaye has chapter on continuous functions metric spaces.
Yes, it starts on page 33. I should have said section rather than chapter.
ha it's in your language I guess :) strana means page perhaps!
yes section will also help me quick as I have the text with me! and can quickly see the preface section!
Oh, sorry, you mean I should have used this link: books.google.com/books?id=BaEgbIoPTygC&pg=PA33 (Anyway you were posting links ending with .co.in - I guess we both simply copied where google redirected us based of language preferences.)
No problem..just found a different version! it's ok.
05:24
also I see you added me to the list of room owners,I am very much thankful for that!,I will try my best to serve the duties of a room owner.
@MartinSleziak
 
3 hours later…
08:16
.)
$X =C[0,1]$
be the space of all real valued continuous functions
on$[0,1]$ .Let $T: X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, be alinear functional defined by $T(f) = f(1)$.Let $X_{1} = (X,||.||_{1})$ and $X_{2} = (X,||.||_{\infty})$.Then $T$ is neither continuous on $X_{1}$ nor on $X_{2}$ ?
I think $||f||_{1} = \int_{0}^{1} f dx$ is this correct?
or it has some other definitions?
and is $||f||_{\infty} = sup(f(x),x \in [0,1])$
?
I thought of using this result that if $f$ is continuous on $X$ then there exists some $\alpha$ such that $||T(f)|| \leq \alpha ||f||$
as per here we have to show $||f(1)|| \leq \alpha ||f||$
also what is the norm associated with space $\Bbb{R}$,I think it is modulus?
In both definitions you are missing absolute value, you should have
\begin{align*}
\|f\|_1 &= \int_0^1 |f(x)| \,dx\\
\|f\|_\infty &= \sup_{x\in[0,1]} |f(x)|
\end{align*}
Yes, on $\mathbb R$ you are using absolute value as the norm. (This is the standard norm when you consider $\mathbb R$ as a linear normed space - so you can always assume this one, unless the text specifies explicitly that in some example a different norm on $\mathbb R$ is considered.
Oh,I see.Also they would violate the properties o the norm (non-negativity) if I don't use
Absolute signs
Exactly.
You also have equivalent characterization now: A linear function $T\colon X\to\mathbb R$ is continuous if and only if there is an $\alpha$ such that $\|x\|\le1$ implies $|T(x)|\le\alpha$.
yes for that to use I must be having $||x|| \leq 1$
?
or here $||f||_{1} \leq 1$
BTW where does the problem come from? Is this really what the problem says? Since I suspect that $T$ is continuous w.r.t $\infty$-norm but not w.r.t 1-norm.
08:31
Its homework, actually I don't have the answer.
How you quickly see the continuity?
Oh, I see, the assignment says that it is continuous in neither of the cases.
Let's have a look at $\infty$ norm first, ok?
yes
Since this is the one where I think what the assignments says is not correct - so I'm curious to see whether I made a mistake.
oh I guessed it! the assignment has no answers! sorry for any trouble.
So we have $T(f)=f(1)$. And we are wondering whether we can make some estimate on this using $\|f\|_\infty=\sup\{|f(x)|; x\in[0,1]\}$.
It should be quite clear that $|f(1)|\le\sup\{|f(x)|; x\in[0,1]\}$.
Do you see why this is true? Do you see how this relates to our problem?
08:36
Yes
any element of the set will be less than or equal to the supremum of that set?
so it is continuous wrt $||.||_{\infty}$ norm right?
And I guess you can also see that the above is exactly $$|T(f)| \le \|f\|_\infty.$$ Which means that $T$ is continuous.
Yes, it is continuous.
yes
Ok, so I guess this was rather easy.
We would also like to show that $T$ is not continuous w.r.t. 1-norm.
To this end it suffices to find a sequence $f_n\in C[0,1]$ such that $\|f_n\|=1$ but $|T(f_n)|\to\infty$.
Can you think of an example of a sequence of continuous functions such that $\int_0^1 |f_n(x)|\,dx=1$ but $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} |f_n(1)|=\infty$. (You can try positive functions so that you do not have to worry about absolute values.)
And $\|f_n\|_1 \le 1$ would also work quite fine.
08:43
let me think about it
So if you prefer, replace it with $\int_0^1 |f_n(x)|\,dx \le 1$.
I guess that for examples like this, it's much easier to draw an example than to come up with a function given by an actual formula.
I think that a picture can be enough of an argument for you to see that it indeed is not continuous. But for an assignment you'll probably need to write down a more formal argument, so you might need to try write down an explicit formula for $f_n$ for that.
I was thinking of triangles growing taller and taller but the area or integration value will blow up
Yes. That would work.
The tall end will be on the right, since you want $|f_n(1)|\to\infty$.
tail end is on the top (directed upwards parallel to the positive y axis)
and as $n$ increases the top end of the traingle grows in the direction parallel to the positive $y$ axis and thus tending towards infinity as $n$ increases
but in this case how $\int_{0}^{1}|f_{n}| dx \leq 1 $ as $n \rightarrow \infty$
perhaps we could squeeze the base length as $n \rightarrow \infty$ tending the area towards 0
08:56
so at last we will be having a straight perpendicular line standing at perhaps $x = \frac{1}{2}$ and the $y$ value is $\infty$
I think you mean $x=1$?
Your functional is defined by $T(f)=1$.
You want $|T(f_n)|\to\infty$, i.e., $|f_n(1)|\to\infty$.
ohk
a perpendicular line standing at $x = 1$
how $\int_{0}^{1} f_{n} dx \leq 1$ here?
Better here I found an online drawing tool
It requires flash player. I'm not sure if I really want that.
Of course, you can take a screenshot and post it here.
for me too it showed at first instance
perhaps if you refresh that page it can show the page
again
hello
09:03
Hi
i hv a question, but its not about functional analysis
@BAYMAX Sorry, I can't get it working.
Its ok
As I said, you can post a screenshot here if you draw something elsewhere.
09:05
@NV-US Well, if the question is not about functional analysis, then probably this is not the right place... You have main chat room and also several discipline-specific chat rooms.
but they are inactive
Main chat room is far from inactive. (8k messages posted last week.)
the last msg was 10 min ago
You have rather strange definition of inactive :-) I see that I've been inactive for the most of my life :-)
sorry but i hv exam tommorow, so i'm worried and all
i am having problem in a definition
can i ask? if its long, dont answer
:)
09:08
Why not asking in a suitable room?
no users present there (currently)
sorry but I while drawing i found that the area also tends to infinity
Well, you have to make it small enough.
We agreed that $f_n$ is going to be a triangle.
What about the triangle determined by the points $(0,0)$, $(1/2,0)$, $(0,2)$.
And then $(0,0)$, $(2/3,0)$, $(0,3)$.
In general, $(0,0)$, $(1-1/n,0)$, $(0,n)$.
hmm..I have to think and draw a bit.. will take some time .sorry
I.e., it is a triangle with height $n$ and the lenght of the base is $1/n$.
09:20
if we see the area is
$\frac{1}{2} * (n-1)$
and as $n \rightarrow \infty$ this area tends to $\infty$
but we want $\int_{0}^{1}|f_{n}| dx \leq 1$
Sorry my bad.
I mean $(0,0)$, $(1-1/n,0)$, $(1,n)$.
The area of such triangle is $1/2$.
What I wrote above was not even a function...
hmm I see
any other approach we can use to show discontinuity?
here
There are probably many possibilities, but this seemed to me to be the easist one.
hmm will try this a bit more
 
2 hours later…
11:11
As an experiment I have tried to add the feed with featured (bounty) questions in functional-analysis tag to this room.
I hope I did it correctly - we'll see whether it works or not.
If we see that it is too disruptive, we can remove the feed.
Ok,sure!
0
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Q: Importance of the uniform boundedness principle

user1620696I've heard that the uniform boundedness principle from functional analysis is a quite important result. The theorem is the following: Let $X$ be a Banach space and $Y$ a normed vector space. Let $F$ be a collection of continuous linear operators $T:X\to Y$ and suppose that $\sup_{T\in F}\|T(...

5
Q: When $\|T(b)\|\le M\|b\|$ for each vector from a basis implies that $T$ is bounded?

Martin SleziakA linear operator $T\colon X\to Y$ between linear normed spaces is bounded if there exists a constant $M$ such that $$\|Tx\| \le M\|x\|\tag{*}$$ holds for every $x\in X$. Are there some situations when it is sufficient to verify that this condition is true for elements from some Hamel basis $B$? ...

how about the feeds not posting here but appearing at the top left side so that one can see the title of the question too!
@MartinSleziak
Ok, so it seems that the feed at least post something in the room. We will see what happens if some of those questions is bumped or if a new question is featured.
@BAYMAX Well, I (and probably most users) will only visit the room from time to time - as opposed to being here all the time. So if they are posted in the form of ticker, they are quite likely to remain unnoticed.
11:24
ok,got it!
I don't think bounties are that frequent. (If we wanted to add another feed with many items, than the ticker is much better option.)
For example, if we want also another feed with all questions tagged , then adding this as chat messages would result to room drowned with post from feeds.
i see
But adding this feed as ticker would be ok I guess.
We might as well try it - just to see how it looks.
I have added feed for all questions with (functional-analysis) tag; via ticker (as opposed to chat messages).
11:28
let us see!
 
2 hours later…
12:59
How are you getting the area $\frac{1}{2}$ for the triangles?
@MartinSleziak
@BAYMAX $\frac12\cdot\frac1n\cdot n$.
1/2*(base)*(height)
base is $1/n$ and height is $n$
The fuctions $f_n$ I had in mind are the triangles which are in your picture on the right.
The points must be then $(1-\frac{1}{n}) , (1,0) ,(1,n)$
$$f_n(x)=
\begin{cases}
0, & \text{for }x\le 1-\frac1n, \\
n^2x-n(n-1) & \text{for }x\ge 1-\frac1n.
\end{cases}
$$
@BAYMAX You have probably some typo there. (The first of your three "points" only has one coordinate.
When I wrote the three points I meant the points which determine the graph of the piecewise linear function. (Not the vertices fo the triangle.)
Now I gotcha
nice!
thank you!
I.e., I wrote three points A,B,C and I meant that graph consists of two linear segments A--B (here the function is zero) and B--C (here it increases).
13:08
Yes
 
1 hour later…
14:17
*) Let $X$ be the space of real sequences having finitely many non-zero terms with $||.||_{p}$ , $1 \leq p \leq \infty$
then $f$ is continuous for which value of $p$ ?
What is $f$?
perhaps a typo in the assignment or it must be $f : X \rightarrow X$
Why i didnot notice that
><
Still, without any information on $f$ we cannot say whether or not it is continuous.
BTW is that assignment available online?
No,they are usually written in our boards and we note them down!
I wish this does not devolve into me solving your homework for you, but to do that, probably I have to learn how to ask right questions and give reasonable hints.
14:21
No
its not like that
Isn't something more given. Like $f(x_n)=(x_1,x_2/2,x_3/3,\ldots)$ or something similar.
I ask those questions which I am unable to do after I think for a bit1
Anyway, if the information you wrote here is all you've been given about this problem, then it's not answerable.
its ok,will chk about it
Like thiso ne is from some PhD entrance exam
All norms on a normed vector space $X$ are equivalent provided
1)X is relexive
2)X is complete
3)X is finite dimensional
4)X is an inner product space
and answer given is 1
3 is certainly true.
14:27
Ok,sorry but let us discuss this after I read about the equivalence of norms
I am searching for some MCQ type questions which involve mind tickling as well as in a short period of time we can tackle over a large problems
due to which the doubts can come and can be defended!
15:22
Looking at some posts on the main, 1) does not seem to be correct choice.
Oh, I maybe misunderstood the question.
So the question is basically: Let X be a reflexive linear normed space. If we take any norm on X which generates the same topology, is this norm equivalent to the original one?
Anyway, I am not really sure what is correct answer to this problem. (And not even whether this is the intended formulation.)
What I wrote above is non-sense. Two norms are equivalent iff they generate the same topology.
So I'll have to admit that the question above is rather unclear to me.
If the same question was asked for "vector space X" (not for "norme vector space X"), then the answer would be finite dimensional.
15:39
it's interesting to know that norms generate topology!
Of course, every normed space is also a metric space, so it generates a topology.
When I trie to search for "All norms on a normed vector space X are equivalent provided", Google finds some pdf files. It seems that "inner product space" is given there as the correct answer.
I still don't get the relation between a norm and a metric like which generates which?
This is quite strange - I have to admit that it's rather unclear to me what the question actually asks.
If you have a norm $\|\cdot\|$ on $X$, then $d(x,y)=\|x-y\|$ is metric on $X$.
And metric gives us a topology.
In fact, whenever we talk about convergence, open set, closed set in a linear normed space, we mean convergence/open/closed w.r.t. this topology (=w.r.t. this metric).
Nice!
So $|||| , ||||^{'}$ are equivalent
on $X$ if there exists positive scalars $\alpha , \beta$
such that $\alpha||x|| \leq ||x||^{'}\leq \beta||x||$
15:54
Yes.
Since $X$ is finite dimensional,let us say dim($X$) = $k$
and let $B = \{U_{1},U_{2},...,U_{k}\}$ be a basis of $X$
After this what should I do?
ok
Let any $x \in X$
then $x = a_{1}U_{1}+a_{2}U_{2}+...+a_{k}U_{k}$
Next $||x||_{B} = max\{ |a_{1}|,|a_{2},...,|a_{k}| \}$
is a norm
on $X$
so when we consider $||x|| = ||a_{1}U_{1} + a_{2}U_{2}+ ... +a_{k}U_{k}||$
$||x|| \leq ||x||_{B}(|| U_{1}||+||U_{2}||+...+||U_{k}||)$
let $\beta = ||U_{1}|| + ||U_{2}|| + ... +||U_{k}||$
so $||x|| \leq \beta ||x||_{B}$
16:26
next how do i show $||x|| \geq \alpha||x||_{B}$

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