@Wyrsa - I'm not limiting the answer. Presented is the orthodox view and my personal view, but anyone can give whatever view they think appropriately answers the question.

Another good Q., + 1. The literal translation for (doubting) Thomas' expression, an outsized expression to be sure, is:- "The Lord of me and the God (ho Theos) of me!". Although Thomas here, addresses Jesus as "my God", with a capital (G), he's truly excited and consequently overly expresses Jesus' own divinity. Thomas undoubtedly (no pun intended) knew that Jesus was not the Almighty God, not "the only true God," to whom Thomas had often heard Jesus pray. (Joh 17: 1-3).

This is another "gotcha" question that does not work. Simply put, it has been used for centuries as one of the proof texts of the divinity of the Son of God, Jesus Christ. The invented excuse that Jesus addressed two persons does not hold water and is patently excluded by the grammar. It is always pressed by desperate unitarians.

Jesus is only 1/3 God if you consider God to be made up of 3 persons, When Thomas said my God, who among the 3 did he mean? Or did he mean the whole 3? Did he mean my God the Father my God the Son and my God the HS?

@AlexBalilo, a Trinitarian would answer that Thomas declared his Lord was "God the Son".

@AlexBalilo - please do not continue to insult us by make such meaningless statements - I accept you do accept the trinitarian position but at least, could you understand the position - All three members of the Godhead are fully God, not one third each!

@AlexBalilo - BTW - I have not seen any silly remarks from trinitarians about unitarianism. Please be gracious in return.

@Dottard. Let objectivity and reason prevail instead of vilification. Address the issues instead of appealing to negative emotions to align with you.

@Dottard. Where's the silliness with my comment?

@Dottard How is it, “patently excluded by the grammar”?

@JesusSaves - This question has been addressed several times on this site and I have contributed.