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A: When Thomas said, "My Lord and my God", did he address both the Son and the Father?

LifeOfVersesLet us not forget that Jesus Himself directly clarified who He is by greatly offending the Pharisees in John 8:58 by referring to Himself using the Holy name of God: “Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”” ‭‭John‬ ‭8‬:‭58‬ This was almost certainly spo...

"I am he"—He is who? The Son of God.
@LifeOfVerses - Sorry to burst your bubble here but the "I am" in John 8:58, is best translated as "I have been", even though "Ego eimi" is clearly stated in the Greek. The action expressed by this basic verb began in the past, is still in progress, and is properly translated by the perfect indicative - It is not the same as Exodus 3:14 - See App 2F, pg. 1145/6, of:- The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures. Jesus, known from the beginning of the World as "The Word/Logos" of God, was obviously existing long before Abraham even came into existence.
@Olde English... Thank you for your reply but No bubble was burst. He was in a Hebrew temple speaking to Hebrew people... I'm pretty certain he wasn't speaking Greek. Using semantics based on a Greek translation of His Hebrew words seems like an apples/oranges discussion. Additionally, your point doesn't explain why they tried to stone Him... in the temple... for the words He spoke. Especially if they were not blasphemous. That would be murder and that is against their Law... Especially in the Temple of God.
A little disrespectful here! You have clearly missed the point that I was trying to make. You brought up John 8:58 to try and infer that Jesus, by using the words "I am", was and quote:-referring to Himself using the Holy name of God. I then explained what all that truly meant, whether in Hebrew or Greek. For the Jews to then want to stone Him, is beside the point. Also, the verse in question is John 20:28, not John 8:58, or John 8:59 for that matter. If you want to continue on this site, you should try and be more respectful when a long standing member tries to help you.
My apologies. TRULY... No disrespect intended just disagreement. I didn't take any offense to you trying to burst my bubble and I tried to be as polite as I could in my response. I honestly reread it multiple times to ensure I wasn't being rude because I don't like coming off that way. I sincerely believe my point still stands though. Jesus said something they considered blasphemous... in Hebrew not Greek. What He said in Hebrew was God's name which would have been considered blasphemous and worthy of stoning... Even in the temple. My apologies again.
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"I am he" (ego eimi) is just an identifier. Even the blind man responds with "I am he" (ego eimi) when asked if he was the one that Jesus healed.
Apologies accepted. But again, the Q., is with regard to John 20:28. If you go below and to the left and click on "Tour", you'll be able to see how this site works and how it's desirable to stay on point and also give a fuller accounting. Just giving three sentences doesn't really cut it.
@OneGodOneLord... That is the second time you've said that. I apologize but I don't understand your point. Could you please provide some context. Why did the Jews want to kill Him for that?
Because even declaring to be the Messiah as God's Son was considered blasphemy to them.
@OneGodOneLord Their discussion was about Abraham and I am He (Messiah) makes no sense in this verse. Ego eimi is first person singular present based on the Strong's. I know Olde English disagrees but I truly believe He said it in Hebrew not Greek so the Greek semantics isn't a winning argument with me. I guess we just agree to disagree. God bless you both. Thank you both for sharpening me.
God bless you too, take care.
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@OldeEnglish I do believe I was on topic with the discussion about the Deity of Jesus. However I want to thank you for pointing me to the Tour. It helped me understand the context of a different reply in a different question. This forum is different than I thought and I appreciate your help now more than previously. I think I'll remain silent and read a bit more before interacting again. Better to remain silent and be thought a fool than to open my mouth and remove all doubt.
@LifeOfVerses - The (d)eity of Jesus is not in question. He (previously "The Word/Logos") was the "Only Begotten" of God after all and therefore inherently divine, but just with a small (d) and not a large (D). Whether the "I am" is "Ego eimi" or "Eh yeh", and yes first person singular, makes no difference to the semantics. One has to be of the "Trinitarian" - which is what I suspect you are - belief, in order to believe that whenever Jesus says "I am" He's admitting that He is (G)od and I am not of that belief, but most on this site are. I hope God blesses you too, regardless.
@OldeEnglish the question was asking about Thomas referring to Jesus and God or just Jesus. I spoke to that. I believe They are one. Because "The Word was God" and The Word was "made flesh and dwelt among us." The book of John makes abundantly clear the Deity of Jesus. I see we disagree on that. God is beyond our comprehension. This is a highly complex topic no man can understand except through the Holy Spirit per 1 Corinthians 2. All of this discussion should be held through Spiritual not fleshly understanding. Hermeneutics tends to dwell in flesh, as a result of semantics, IMHO.
We are probably going to have to go to a "Chat" room regarding this discussion as to Jesus' true identity but, and with all due respect, I've already spent more than enough time with you. I will say this now though and then be done with it. The actual Greek wording for John 1:1c is:- and (g)od (predicate noun) was (after noun verb) the Word (subject). What's in brackets has specific meaning as to semantics, which will take too long to go into here. John does make it abundantly clear the (d)eity of Jesus, but just with a small (d) rather than a large (D). As to the HS ....