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16:52
I've voted to reopen the question, in part because the "off topic" close reason includes a link to a page saying "Questions on the following topics are welcomed here: ... Pronunciation (phonetics and phonology, dialectology) ... Spelling ..."
@terdon but it does indeed seem that "slave" comes from "Slav."
@phoog What does slave/slav have to do with it? My point was about the word "grekos". In any case, even is there were an etymological link with slave, I don't see how that would be relevant, but in this case there isn't even such a link.
@terdon that the alleged sense of the alleged etymon of the demonym "Greek" is the actual sense of a word whose etymon is a demonym strikes me as interesting. Otherwise not much.
Ah, yes. Although, if anything, since the word was first used for the people and, apparently, took on a second meaning because of the number of Slavs shipped off to slavery, I could sorta kinda understand changing the word for slave, but not the word for Slav. In any case, my main issue with this idea is that nation A is presuming to tell nation B how to say something in their own language.
@tchrist there are many words borrowed from French that English speakers mostly get more or less in the ballpark: rendezvous, for example, but also some with "oi" (foie gras) and with "i" (joie de vivre). It's perfectly plausible to add Côte d'Ivoire to the list.
@terdon agreed, it's annoying.
@terdon I wonder whether people from Confoederatio Helvetica have the same problem.
Checking the images it seems probably not as the passport says "Swiss passport" on the cover in four languages.
Has anyone mentioned Timor Leste?
Or five languages, actually, the fifth being English.
17:12
Not yet. And there are some cases where I do get it, where we have a recent occupying force using a slur as the name for an ethnic group. There are exceptions, but this Turkey/Turkiye Greece/Hellenic Republic nonsense is just nationalism with a healthy dollop of linguistic ignorance.
I think @PhilHasnip is on the right track: we should change the name of the bird, too.
17:32
@terdon this is frankly the first I've heard of anyone objecting to "Greece"; I never saw it as anything other than having different names for the political state and for its territory, not unlike "République Française" and "France" but with different words, not unlike "Helvetia" and "Switzerland."
@phoog yeah, it's a thing in Greece, but less so outside it. However, Greek passports don't say "Greece", they say "Hellenic Republic" and explaining WTH that is to border agents gets old fast!
Since you're here, @phoog:
@terdon in English syllabification, there are three syllables of which the last is "-a" or "-ye," so I'm confused: I was effectively asking if it was stressed on the penult and you responded "yes, it's stressed on the last syllable." My comment on implausibility referred to the likelihood that a word entered Turkish from Latin rather than Greek, not the likelihood of Greek words entering Latin. — phoog 6 hours ago
Yeah, fair enough. I had misunderstood you to be saying that you found the Ancient Greek --- Latin --> English path surprising. I completely agree that Turkish ---> Latin would be weird!
Did I manage to make myself clear on the pronunciation of the modern Greek "Turkia"? Its syllabification would be tur-'ki-ah in English, with the stress on the i of the second syllable.
 
1 hour later…
18:51
@terdon but it was Latin to Turkish, not the other way around, that I was calling implausible.
@terdon well that's what I thought initially but then I was confused by "last syllable" in your comment.
@phoog Ah, well, still. You're right and that too would be surprising.
@phoog Um. Yah. That was just plain wrong, sorry. I should have said penultimate. Even in Greek, the syllabification would have it as the penultimate, dunno what I was thinking there, sorry.

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