@LPZ ok, after some time I've boiled my question down. The answer to the original question asked here relies on:
$$
\text{ad}(\hat{n}\cdot \sigma)(\sigma) = -2i(\hat{n}\cdot J)\sigma
$$
To prove it we use $[\sigma_i, \sigma_j] = 2i\epsilon_{ijk}\sigma_k$ and $(J_i)_{jk} = -\epsilon_{ijk}$ and a bit of algebra elbow grease.
But I'm wondering if it's possible to know that this formula is true more abstractly, just using representation theory and the resulting relationships between $\sigma$ and $J$.
$$
\text{ad}(\hat{n}\cdot \sigma)(\sigma) = -2i(\hat{n}\cdot J)\sigma
$$
To prove it we use $[\sigma_i, \sigma_j] = 2i\epsilon_{ijk}\sigma_k$ and $(J_i)_{jk} = -\epsilon_{ijk}$ and a bit of algebra elbow grease.
But I'm wondering if it's possible to know that this formula is true more abstractly, just using representation theory and the resulting relationships between $\sigma$ and $J$.