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Q: If a holomorphic function $f$ from the open ball to the complex numbers have bounded derivative then $|\frac{f^{n}(0)}{n!}|\leq e$

Brien NavarroThe problem is the following. Let $B_1(0)=\lbrace z\in \mathbb{C}: |z|<1\rbrace$ and consider a holomorphic function $f:B_1(0)\to \mathbb{C}$ such that $|f^{\prime}(z)|\leq \frac{1}{1-|z|}$ for all $z\in B_1(0)$. Show that $$|\frac{f^{n}(0)}{n!}|\leq e$$ where $f^n(0)$ denote the $n$-th derivativ...

The $n$th derivative of $f$ is the $(n-1)$st derivative of $f'$. If needed, I'll write down a complete answer.
Thanks a lot for the suggestion. I Will update the post tomorrow with the new ideas from this suggestion
@S.C I revise the question in my notes and not limsup was omitted
@redwhisker If tomorrow I do not get the solution with your suggestion may you write down your idea? .
Sure, ping me here
@redwhisker I use your suggestion and feel like the solution is so closer. But at this point I do not know how use the fact about our $\gamma$ this is $0<r<1$.
maybe think of a limit that gives you $1/e$ like $(1-1/n)^n$ and pick $r_n$ carefully
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@Conrad I do not understand how pass from a expression in terms of $r$ to an otherone in terms of $n$. Can you explain more your current idea?
I understand that $n$ is fixed here, and $r$ can vary in the interval $(0,1)$,
plug in $r_n=1-1/(n+1)$ in $\left| \frac{f^{n+1}(0)}{(n+1)!}\right|\leq \frac{\frac{1}{1-r}}{r^{n+1}(n+1)}$ which is valid for all $r<1$ and see what happens
Omg, thanks a lot. This is awesome
Since the perimeter of the circular arc $\gamma_n$ is $2\pi r_n$, shouldn’t you have the following instead? $$\left| \frac{g^{n}(0)}{n!}\right|\leq \frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot |g(z)|\cdot 2\pi r_n=\frac{\frac{1}{1-r_n}}{r_{n}^{n}}.$$
Yes, you are right i made a mistake. But the reasoning is the same (we only need modify the chosen radious). I will update the post with the correct assumptions
@user1551 thanks a lot for you clarification. Now the post is fixed and indeed is not necessary change the radius of the sequence of closed curves $\gamma_n$.
@BrienNavarro: You cannot take $n \to \infty$ only on the right-hand side of $\left| \frac{f^{n+1}(0)}{(n+1)!}\right|\leq \frac{1}{(1-\frac{1}{n+1})^{n}}$.
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Hmm, Yes, give me a moment, probably I need re think the problem.
@MartinR you have an idea to approach this?. Your observation literally show that I make the things wrong
For instance I do not look how fix the proof given
I tried this independently last night with $f'$ in the formula and ended up with an infinite limit in the end (details omitted). So I have a question, where does this problem come from?
@Kevin the problem is from the the notes of my Complex Analysis Teacher. In the notes he suggest that the problem follows as consequence of Cauchy Integral Formula. But after of spend more than 5 hours I really get frustrated and create the open question here.
While you cannot take $n$ to the limit (because $n$ is fixed), it suffices to prove that $e^{-1}\le(1-\frac{1}{n+1})^n$ for every positive integer $n$.

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