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08:27
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Q: If $f$ belongs to $C[0, 1]$. Determine the cases where the given condition implies that $f$ is identically zero

saniIf $f$ belongs to $C[0, 1]$. Determine the cases where the given condition implies that $f$ is identically zero. Case 1 $\int\ x^nf(x) =0$ for all non negative n Case 2 $\int\ f(x)Cosnx =0$ for all non negative n Case 3 $\int\ f(x)Sinnx =0$ for all positive n What I know is ...

@Haha Can u help me in this question? If $f$ belongs to $C[0, 1]$. Determine the cases where the given condition implies that $f$ is identically zero. Case 1 $\int\ x^nf(x) =0$ for all non negative n Case 2 $\int\ f(x)Cosnx =0$ for all non negative n Case 3 $\int\ f(x)Sinnx =0$ for all positive n — sani 7 hours ago
@sani Asking random questions in comments is not a reasonable way how to deal with the question ban. (Neither is asking questions on other sites, where they are off-topic.) You have enough reputation to talk in chat, so you can try to ask there. For example Calculus and analysis chat room or the main chat room might be a reasonable place for the question from your comment. — Martin Sleziak 7 secs ago
BTW it is very likely that the above questions have been already asked on the main.
For example, after a quick search using Approach0 I found these:
5
Q: If $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n \ dx=0$ for every $n$, then $f=0$.

Potato Possible Duplicates: Nonzero $f \in C([0, 1])$ for which $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n dx = 0$ for all $n$ Slight generalization of an exercise in (blue) Rudin What can we say about $f$ if $\int_0^1 f(x)p(x)dx=0$ for all polynomials $p$? I found a nice problem I would like to share. Pro...

12
Q: What can we say about $f$ if $\int_0^1 f(x)p(x)dx=0$ for all polynomials $p$?

Bruce GeorgeThis question was motivated by another question in this site. As explained in that problem (and its answers), if $\displaystyle f$ is continuous on $\displaystyle [0,1]$ and $\displaystyle \int_0^1 f(x)p(x)dx=0$ for all polynomials $\displaystyle p$, then $\displaystyle f$ is zero everywhere. S...

7
Q: Slight generalization of an exercise in (blue) Rudin

Mike BExercise 7.20 of blue Rudin (Principles of Mathematical Analysis), 3rd edition, says: If $f$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ and if $$\int_0^1f(x)x^n\,dx = 0, (n=0,1,2,\ldots),$$ prove that $f(x)=0$ on $[0,1].$ One proof: Let $\{p_n\}$ be a sequence of polynomials uniformly approximating $f.$ Then $...

19
Q: Nonzero $f \in C([0, 1])$ for which $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n dx = 0$ for all $n$

SpyamAs the title says, I'm wondering if there is a continuous function such that $f$ is nonzero on $[0, 1]$, and for which $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n dx = 0$ for all $n \geq 1$. I am trying to solve a problem proving that if (on $C([0, 1])$) $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n dx = 0$ for all $n \geq 0$, then $f$ must be ident...

In fact here is a rather similar question to yours:
1
Q: Let $f : [0;1] \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function such that $f(0) = 0$. Which of the following statements are true?

user118413Let $f : [0;1] \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function such that $f(0) = 0$. Which of the following statements are true? a. If $\int_ 0^{\pi} f(t) \cos nt\, dt = 0,$ for all $n \in {0} \cup \mathbb{N}$, then $f= 0$. b. If $\int_ 0^{\pi} f(t) \sin nt\, dt = 0,$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$, then $...

09:11
But this is not a random question...This is very much relevant to the main question..However If u know the answer U could have helped me with lesser effort..@MartinSleziak — sani 7 mins ago
$\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin nx =0$ for all positive integer n then prove $f(x)$ is identically $0$ on $[0, \pi]$ where $f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0, 1]$ Can anyone plzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz help me...I got stuck at this problem...I would have asked this question on the forum..But I am blocked.. Plzzz help me...Thanks in Advance..
@sani So is it continuous on $[0,\pi]$ or on $[0,1]$?
Doesn't the question linked above answer your question?
Just in case - since you are probably new to chat: For instructions how to render MathJax(TeX) in chat see this post on meta. Or directly robjohn's website.
@MartinSleziak sorry sir [0, \pi]
$[0, \pi]$
Okk Sir I will see...Now can u plzz give any hint
no sir that was a different question..$f(0) = 0$ is given
So what is actually the question? We have $\int_0^\pi f(x) \sin nx dx=0$ for $f$ continuous on $[0,\pi]$?
And what are you actually allowed to use. For example, can you use Fourier series?
Here is one more similar question:
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Q: If $ \int_0^{\pi}f(x)\cos(nx)\,dx=0$ for all $n$ then prove that $f\equiv 0$

S717717 If $f:[0,\pi]\to \mathbb R$ is continuous and $f(0)=0$ such that $\displaystyle \int_0^{\pi}f(x)\cos(nx)\,dx=0$ for all $n=0,1,2,\cdots$ then prove that $f\equiv 0$ in $[0,\pi]$. I want to apply Weierstrass approximation theorem. As $f$ is continuous so there exists a sequence of polynomials...

4
Q: Application of Fourier Series and Stone Weierstrass Approximation Theorem

Struggler If $f \in C[0, \pi]$ and $\int_0^\pi f(x) \cos nx\, \text{d}x = 0$ , then $f = 0$ Define $ g(x) = \begin{cases} f(-x) & \text{if } -\pi \leq x < 0;\\ f(x) & \text{if } 0 \leq x \leq \pi. \end{cases}$ which is an even function So $g(x)$ can be written as $\sum_{n=0...

Both from this search.
Reading the answers to the above questions, it seems not very likely that there is an easy answer without at least some result on Fourier series.
It seems that you're gone. I guess the above links could help you.
 
2 hours later…
11:24
hiii@Martin Sleziak Do u have any Idea How can I proceed????? — sani 42 mins ago
@sani I am not sure how you are using pings, but I did not receive any notification on your comments.
I can hardly give you any advice, since you did not really clarified what is actually the question.
2 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
So what is actually the question? We have $\int_0^\pi f(x) \sin nx dx=0$ for $f$ continuous on $[0,\pi]$?
2 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
And what are you actually allowed to use. For example, can you use Fourier series?
2 hours ago, by Martin Sleziak
Reading the answers to the above questions, it seems not very likely that there is an easy answer without at least some result on Fourier series.
I guess that you have leave a space before @ for a notification to work. (This would explain why I was not notified by either of your comments.)
11:50
@MartinSleziak Sir I am really sorry..Actually I am new here.. That's why I could not operate corretcly..U can use anything u want...Plzzz mention it clearly only...And I have edited the question clearly....U plzzz go through the question rigorously once..
@sani Which question are you actually talking about?
Could you give me a link, since you are saying that you edited the question?
Okk sIR I am giving u the question..Plzz wait a minute..
And please do not call me sir. That's really upsetting.
If $f$ belongs to $C[0, \pi]$. Determine the cases where the given condition implies that $f$ is identically zero.

Case 1 $\int_{0}^{\pi}\ x^nf(x) =0$ for all non negative integer n

Case 2 $\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\cos nx =0$ for all non negative integer n

Case 3 $\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin nx =0$ for all positive integer n
If $f$ belongs to $C[0, \pi]$. Determine the cases where the given condition implies that $f$ is identically zero.

Case 1     $\int_{0}^{\pi}\ x^nf(x) =0$     for all non negative integer n

Case 2    $\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\cos nx =0$    for all non negative integer n

Case 3  $\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin nx =0$    for all positive integer n
Let's have a look at the first one.
@sani As I have mentioned above, there are several posts on the main where you can find answers for this one: If $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n \ dx=0$ for every $n$, then $f=0$., Nonzero $f \in C([0, 1])$ for which $\int_0^1 f(x)x^n dx = 0$ for all $n$, etc.
11:58
Yea First case seem easy..It can be done by Weirstrass
seems*
For the second one, I have also given you some links, like this one: If $ \int_0^{\pi}f(x)\cos(nx)\,dx=0$ for all $n$ then prove that $f\equiv 0$
Answers in the links I have found use Fourier series in some way.
Thank UUUU...I am trying to understand...and what about case 4..Will it be same as 3?
There is no case 4...?
Do you mean case 3? (The one with $\sin nx$?)
yes yes case 3
I'd guess that it can probably be solved similarly. Now you want to have Fourieser series only with sines, so you probably want to extend $f$ to an odd function on $[-\pi,\pi]$.
12:05
Okkk I am trying to solve..I will let u know once I am done...
12:29
The title says $[0,1]$, but the question actually asks about integrals from $0$ to $\pi$.
@BAYMAX If you are around - IIRC you managed to somehow get out of question ban. Maybe you will have some reasonable advice for sani.
Sir Actually I am blocked. I can not ask question. Can u plzz help me?@User8128 — sani May 19 at 1:19
12:43
I did not get u
13:04
$$\hat f (n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(x)e^{-inx}\,dx = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^\pi f(x)\cos (nx)\,dx = 0$$
Can u plzz tell me how this happens???@Martin Sleziak
13:14
@sani Isn't that directly the definition of Fourier coefficients?
$$b_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}s(x) \sin(nx)\, dx$$
$$a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}s(x) \cos (nx)\, dx$$
no no that's okay.. I haVe problem with this equality..How R.H.S = L.H.S
I am not really sure what you now mean by RHS and LHS.
Is this the problem? $$e^{-inx} = \cos nx + i \sin nx$$
You can basically ignore that part. If you are used to write Fourier series in the form $$f \sim a_0 + \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n\sin nx + b_n\cos nx$$ then simply use this form.
Can u PLZZ explain how Parseval's identity is working here for case 2 and 3..Everyone is talking about this...
Well, I doubt I can say something which you do not find already in Wikipedia article: Parseval's identity.
Here you show in both cases that all coefficients are zeroes. (And then apply the identity.)
Can u plzzz elaborate???? In one place this equality $$\hat f (n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(x)e^{-inx}\,dx = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^\pi f(x)\cos (nx)\,dx = 0$$ is used..I have problem here...When f(x) is even then how it happens?
13:29
If $f$ is even then $g(x)=f(x)\sin nx$ is odd and $h(x)=f(x)\cos nx$ is even.
For odd function $g(x)$ you have
$$\int_{-\pi}^\pi g(x) dx = 0.$$
For even function $h(x)$ you have
$$\int_{-\pi}^\pi h(x) dx = 2\int_{0}^\pi h(x) dx .$$
ohhh I get it
thank u once again..
Actually My brain stopped working... I have disturbed u enough .. Sorry for that...
 
3 hours later…
16:23
Yes @MartinSleziak
So @sani try to answer the questions in the main correctly which you think you can answer well so that your answers get up voted and you get more points or reputation and you see that you can ask questions now,my reputation was 96 that time during the block and I incresed upto some 300 or 400 and I saw that the block of ask question was lifted for me! so try to answer as much questions as you can correctly with proper LaTeX and clearly . ok all the best!
 
1 hour later…
17:58
@BAYMAX Thank u for ur wishes.. I will tryy....

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