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06:47
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A: if a+a = e, and G is a group, then G is abelian.

ThomasNote that $(a+b) + (b+a) = a+ b+b+a = a+e+a = a+a = e$ (This is a hint, as you have asked for, but only one steps remains to show what you want).

I guess the last step is to show that (a+b)=(b+a)? I hope this isn't a very stupid question :(
@Lisa The calculation shows that $b+a$ is the inverse of $a+b$. What do you know about the inverse?
I know that for $+$ the Inverse of an element $a$ is $-a$. For $\cdot$ the inverse of $a$ is $a^{-1}$
You know a bit more - first, you make an assumption about the inverse in your question. Then you have just, correctly, written "the" inverse. (As opposed to "some" inverse).
Oh, maybe since because we know that for $a$ the inverse is $-a$ and with how you've shown that $b+a$ is the inverse of $a+b$ in this case we can conclude $a+b -(b+a) =0$?
06:47
By assumption, the inverse of any $a\in G$ is $a$. So the inverse of $a+b$ is $a+b$. My calculation shows that also $b+a$ is inverse to $a+b$. What do you now need to finish? Look at my previous comment.
We assumed the inverse of $a$ being $a$ and showed that this isn't the case and therefore we conclude that $G$ must be abelian?
Hey :) Thanks for your time first of all
the axioms for groups say that the inverse of an element is unique. Now you know that a+b is an inverse of a+b and also that b+a is an inverse.
what does that tell you?
Well, the axioms must be correct and we've just shown, under assumption that there is another inverse. So our assumption must be wrong
no, the assumption is given
Ah
06:50
you found two different expressions for the inverse, and know that the inverse is unique. What does that imply?
They're equal
Finally ;-)
damn it :)
I guess I should study harder
but now it clicks
thank you very much!
welcome

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