05:09
@curiousdannii I find the question rather perplexing, coming from a Christian. Why don't a Christian want to be a realist? To really know God, even if in this world we can only see "through a glass, darkly" (1 Cor 13:12, KJV)? But God is known to increase the light of faith given to us if we are persistent and if He deigns to give us "early access" as He did to several saints? That Jesus himself, our model human nature, had beatific vision, so it is humanly possible?
From theological perspective, philosophy is truly a handmaiden. The Queen gives revelation, so philosophy can describe this revelation via the instrument of the human soul uplifted with grace. Yes, if philosophy wants to be independent from faith, like Kant, then philosophy is forced to limit the horizon of "analyzable" reality, just like empirical science needs to satisfy herself with empirically verifiable subset of reality.
But theological realism is a wider possibility for a Christian, a science whose data encompasses more than that, hence the medieval characterization of theology as "science of God" and as "queen of the sciences" of other disciplines. To limit this "science of God" at the level of language game or conceptual analysis of scriptural data rather than including ontological exploration by the saints who truly know and experience God would be to impoverish theology, I think.
I came across this 2021 dissertation Towards a Realist Conception of Theology: An Account Based on the Works of Bavinck and Plantinga whose Chapter One can provide contemporary background for realism vs. anti-realism approach to theology.
05:33
Page 19 of Chapter 1 offers Christopher Insole's litmus test of realism in theology (all 4 criteria must be held):
> I understand any approach to the practice of religion to be anti-realist if and only if it denies at least one of the following four criteria for a realist construal of religious discourse:
> A) there is an indispensable core of religious utterances that are fact-asserting, not merely expressive (from here on I will refer to this core as “statements”),
> B) statements are made true by a non-epistemic state of affairs (the way the world is, rather than by standards of “ideal justification”),
> Religious anti-realism involves a denial of at least one of these claims for religious statements.
@GratefulDisciple Someone could be persuaded of realism (indeed, a 5 minute youtube video was enough to convince me not to be a nominalist), but it seems odd to me that someone would really truly want to be a realist. None of what you've said has anything to do with Christians wanting to be realists. And indeed I can't see any reasons particular to Christianity for wanting abstracts or universals to be real.
BTW, I forgot to actually answer the question. I want to be a realist because I want to contemplate God, which (in Aquinas's analysis of happiness) is the ultimate activity. I find this Thomistic Institute lecture The Search for Happiness: Wisdom from Aquinas and the Classical Tradition very helpful.
05:51
@curiousdannii From skimming various articles, it seems classical theism is a lot more tightly linked with Divine simplicity, God outside time and space, and God as the ground of all being, in which rational creatures has "more" of him since we are made in the image of God, RATHER THAN a position regarding universals.
when we say that a man is wise, we signify his wisdom as something distinct from the other things about him—his essence, for example, his powers, or his existence. But when we use ‘wise’ when talking about God we do not intend to signify something distinct from his essence, power or existence. When we predicate ‘wise’ of a human being we, so to speak, circumscribe and define the limits of the aspect of human beings that it signifies. But this is not so when we predicate ‘wise’ of God … So, it is clear that we do not use ‘wise’ in the same sense of God and people, and the same goes for all o…
@curiousdannii I have to be careful with my terminology (you can help me). What I'm trying to communicate is that Love (as the proper name of the Holy Spirit) is the Trinitarian life given to me as "new life" (born again), with whom (personal relationship) I communicate and also receive (as a being, hence the analogy of opening the door to one's heart) to elevate my natural love to be supernatural love (agape).
@curiousdannii Again, I have to be careful with my terminology. I don't want to say God's essence is in me, rather, the divine economy in "sending" the Holy Spirit to each believer has the Trinitarian life dynamic in what is being sent. I think God's essence should be transcendent, but the LIFE can be immanent and Trinitarian.
@GratefulDisciple This is one of those things where there can be two very different ideas of a topic and it doesn't have to be only one is true. I would say our New Life is primarily the new resurrection human life of Christ, not his divinity. But through Union with Christ we are united to the divine life too. So... porque no los dos?
06:21
This then, enable me to meaningfully say that Christ is truly present in me as a friend (human to human), the Holy Spirit is truly present as the Love that I know and desire and experience (i.e. when I managed to forgive my enemy, or when my compassion is kindled for the oppressed), and the Father as my adoptive father to whom I have been made right by virtue of Christ's sacrifice, so I can call him "Abba, Father".
@GratefulDisciple While we can experience/participate in the divine life of Christ, no questions about that, I suspect that a detailed word study of "new life" in the scriptures would associate it with just one idea. (May or may not be the one I said.)
But I have no issue with saying that our theological terminology can have different meanings than how terminology is used in the scriptures. The classic example of that is sanctification, where our (Protestant) theological use is normally focused on the progressive aspects of salvation, compared to justification which is seen as a state, while the scriptural uses of both words are both progressive and stative.
7 hours later…
13:25
@GratefulDisciple Swedenborg is speaking specifically of the biblical prophets. Most of the books of the Bible were not written by prophets. Moses, for example, was a lawgiver, not a prophet. Nor were the books between Deuteronomy and Isaiah written by prophets. The Gospel writers were also not prophets, though John did write the book of Revelation in a prophetical style, and could be considered a prophet as the writer of that specific book. Prophets should not be confused with biblical authors.
I should add that the question was whether Swedenborg viewed himself as a prophet. As such, the relevant definition of "prophet" is Swedenborg's definition of a prophet. Personally, I don't accept Swedenborg's view of the prophets 100%. I think they were more aware of what they were talking about than Swedenborg thought they were. But the key point for a Swedenborgian is that all of the books of the Prophets have a deeper, spiritual meaning throughout.
2 hours later…
15:49
@LeeWoofenden Thanks for clarifying further what you wrote in the answer. Yes, mainstream definition of a prophet is broader, and the central idea is not the mode of communication (to the prophet) nor whether the content has deeper meaning (to the community), but the central idea is an authentic spokesperson for God. Yes, not all Biblical authors receive special experience (like vision, dream, etc.) but they are all considered prophets because their writing are inspired.
God can speak for various purposes as testified in the Bible: message of judgment, consolation, the giving of laws, very specific circumstances in times of war, God's promise for future actions, God's action in the past (Genesis is a after-the-fact theologizing), etc. Some today believe there can be prophets for comfort, rebuking, direction, etc., although not to add to the Biblical teaching.
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