Conversation started Aug 26, 2020 at 7:34.
Aug 26, 2020 07:34
The Lorentz force law can be written as $\frac{d p^{\mu}}{d \tau} = e F^{\mu \nu} U_{\nu}$, where $F^{\mu \nu} = \partial^{\mu} A^{\nu} - \partial^{\nu} A^{\mu}$, you can then view this as the extremum of a Lagrangian and integrate it against $\delta x^{\mu} d \tau$ and use integration by parts to end up with the potential
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In physics (specifically in electromagnetism) the Lorentz force (or electromagnetic force) is the combination of electric and magnetic force on a point charge due to electromagnetic fields. A particle of charge q moving with a velocity v in an electric field E and a magnetic field B experiences a force of
F
=
q
E
+
q
v
×
B
{\displaystyle \mathbf {F} =q\mathbf {E} +q\mathbf {v} \times \mathbf {B} }
(in SI units)...
For one way to remember the potential, just remember $S = \int [\frac{1}{2} m v^2 - V(x)] d t$, this is the non-relativistic Lagrangian of a particle moving in a scalar potential $V(x)$. What should the potential term look like if it is not a scalar potential $V(x)$ but is instead a four-vector potential $A_{\mu}(t,x,y,z) = (V,\vec{A})$, added in a relativistically-invariant way, such that when $\vec{A} = 0$ we obtain the usual scalar potential.
Conversation ended Aug 26, 2020 at 7:43.
Deriving the electromagnetic potential
Aug '2026
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