Conversation started May 30, 2012 at 13:29.
May 30, 2012 13:29
Apparently, every $R$-module $M$ is the quotient of a free module. The proof has been skipped in my notes. So if $F(S)$ denotes the free module generated by the set $S$, we define a map $f: F(M) \to M$ as $$v=(0, \dots, 0, 1, 0, \dots, 0) \mapsto m$$ where the vector $v$ is one at coordinate $m$ and zero otherwise and $$(0, 0, \dots, 0) \mapsto 0$$
Then by the first isomorphism theorem, $M \cong F(M) / ker(f)$ since $f$ is surjective. So far so good.
What disturbs me is that I think the kernel of $f$ is $0$. Something is wrong here.
If $f$ really had kernel zero then every module $M$ would be isomorphic to $F(M)$.
i am confused...you are assuming M is finite?
That should've been: $$v=(0, \dots, 0, 1, 0, 0, \dots) \mapsto m$$ and $$(0, 0, \dots ) \mapsto 0 $$
ok, so we're taking M as a basis for F(M)
now, what happens if m is a torsion element in M?
because you're going to extend f R-linearly, yes?
i would call v, $v_m$
and then you have for a torsion element m, $f(rv_m) = rm = 0$
since F(M) is free, $rv_m \neq 0$, so the kernel isn't just the 0-element of F(M).
things that aren't 0 in F(M) can add up to 0 in M, see?
May 30, 2012 13:50
@MattN You have tons of relations in $M$ that are non-existent in $F(M)$. For example $\lambda m$ and $m$ are independent in $F(M)$. So $(\lambda m) - \lambda \cdot m$ is nonzero in $F(M)$ but is sent to zero in $M$ under $f$.
in F(M), you have R-linear combinations of the v's, all of which are non-zero, except the 0-combination
in M, these same linear combinations may "evaluate" to 0
@tb What's the difference between $(\lambda m)$ and $\lambda \cdot m$?
@tb i thought you didn't like algebra?
@MattN $(\lambda m)$ is a basis element in $F(M)$ and $\lambda \cdot m$ is $\lambda$ times the basis element $m$ of $F(M)$.
@DavidWheeler Right. Not particularly.
@MattN $\lambda m = v_{\lambda m}, \lambda \cdot m = \lambda v_m$
May 30, 2012 13:58
But isn't multiplication with elements $r$ in $R$ for $(m)$ in $F(M)$ defined as $r(m) := (rm)$?
one has 1 in the $\lambda m$-th place and 0's elsewhere, one has $\lambda$ in the m-th place, and 0's elsewhere
Oh. Wait.
two distinct elements of M give rise to 2 distinct basis elements of F(M)
F(M) is a LOT bigger than M
we give each element of M "it's own space" and then multiply everything in each space by every element of R
whereas in M, R just moves things around in M
So let's see what these things are: $m = (0, 0, \dots, 0, 1, 0, \dots, )$. Right?
for example, suppose M = Z, the integers. this is a free Z-module of rank 1. but F(Z) assigns a distinct element for each integer, so you have a free module of infinite rank
May 30, 2012 14:04
With one at position $m$.
Then $\lambda \cdot m = (0, 0, \dots, \lambda, 0, \dots )$
@tb Everything right so far?
yep (if that last thing has an entry in "m'th position".)
Yes.
Now. I want to figure out what $(\lambda m)$ is.
I think basis elements of $F(M)$ look like $(0, \dots, 1, 0, \dots)$.
Maybe you just use David's notation and write $v_{\lambda m} - \lambda v_m$. Where $v_x$ is the basis element in $F(M)$ corresponding to $x \in M$.
in my example, we might have 2 = (0,0,0,1,0,0,.....) (if we list the integers (0,1,-1,2,-2,...etc). but 2.1 = (0,2,0,.....)
but both of these elements will map to the integer 2 under f.
@tb Got it. Thank you.
Now I need to read your first comment again and see if I understand it now.
@tb Yay!! : )
@tb Thank you! : ) So the kernel of $f$ that seemed so obviously zero isn't zero.
May 30, 2012 14:10
the "sequence" notation is sort of bad, because R (the real numbers for example) is a module over Z, but you can't "list" the basis elements that way
I agree
it would be better to use an "index set"
@MattN far from it!
every "free thing" i've come across usually seems to be huge. except vector spaces. for some reason, they behave.
@tb See you later! And thanks. You saved me from a moment of panic there.
May 30, 2012 14:13
As David said, the free module $F(M)$ on $M = R$ has rank $\#R$. So it's huge in comparison with the free module $M$ of rank $1$.
@MattN later!
and no problem.
 
Conversation ended May 30, 2012 at 14:13.