so if $f(\bullet) = g\in G$, the homomorphism is just $\varphi(n) = g^n$.
because $\varphi(1) = \varphi(j(\bullet)) = g$, and then the fact that $\varphi$ is a hom implies what I wrote above.
(I'm using the notation in the second image I posted)
Ping me when you get back, please.