Conversation started Jun 4, 2015 at 9:55.
Jun 4, 2015 09:55
How is $F_2 \cong \Bbb Z \ast \Bbb Z$?
The hint provided is that "with due care, the universal property for one turns into the universal property for the other."
@SohamChowdhury Well, what are those universal properties?
For the coproduct, some unique morphism f must make this diagram commute.
@SohamChowdhury Ok, so you want to get that from having a similar property on a set with two elements, right?
Yes.
And the universal property for the coproduct in Grp is this:
@SohamChowdhury You mean for the free group
Jun 4, 2015 10:02
There is a unique group hom $\varphi$ making this commute.
Yeah, sorry.
The free group on A.
@SohamChowdhury Ok, so you have a map from each copy of $\mathbb{Z}$ to some group, and you want to show that this gives a unique map from the free group on two objects to that group
now, what data do you need to get such a unique map?
I think I'd need the two maps $\Bbb Z \to F(\{x,y\})$.
@SohamChowdhury No, what data do you need to ensure a unique map to the group from the free group on two generators?
Jun 4, 2015 10:05
I'm not sure what you mean by "data" there.
@SohamChowdhury Nothing precise. What sort of thing do you need
Wait.
Let me think for a bit.
By "data" do you mean just "information"? @TobiasKildetoft
@skillpatrol Something like that. In category theory, it is often referred to as "data"
Not really sure. Don't I need the rest of the maps in the diagram? Then I could make a unique map that would make the diagram commute.
Jun 4, 2015 10:09
@SohamChowdhury Well, for the free group, the map from $A$ to the free group is part of the free group (in some sense)
so all you need is a map from $A$ to the target group
Yes.
So these are the "diagonals" in the first diagram?
@SohamChowdhury Now, given a map from each copy of $\mathbb{Z}$, do you see how to get a map from $A$ (which has two elements)?
from the two copies of Z to?
I mean, give it a name.
@SohamChowdhury Well, you are trying to show that the free group on two generators is the coproduct of two copies of $\mathbb{Z}$
So let's assume we have a map from each copy to some group $G$
Jun 4, 2015 10:12
Now, we want to show we get a unique map from the free group $F$ on two generators to $G$
So I need to find a map $A\to G$?
(making everythig commute)
right
or $F(A) \to G$?
which one?
@SohamChowdhury $A\to G$ (which is what will ensure a unique map $F\to A$)
uniqye homomorphism I mean
I'm having a little trouble visualizing all these maps. Are the two diagrams supposed to "join together" in some way?
How does A enter the first diagram?
Jun 4, 2015 10:17
@SohamChowdhury Well, that is pretty much the entire idea here, to realize that having a homomorphism from each of two copies of $\mathbb{Z}$ corresponds to having a map from $A$
@SohamChowdhury Right
@TobiasKildetoft I was confused when you said "unique map $F\to A$". That's not in the free group diagram. Did you mean $A\to F$ or $F\to G$?
@SohamChowdhury I don't think I mentioned any unique maps to $A$
@SohamChowdhury Ohh, woops I did
I linked the comment.
Jun 4, 2015 10:19
I means to $G$
Ahh.
Now I can think.
So what was the question?
Finding a map $A\to G$?
@SohamChowdhury Yes
@MikeMiller A summerschool. I also noted that this can be taken in a somewhat algebraic direction; I want to see where that goes.
@Tobias nothing's coming to mind.
@SohamChowdhury Ok, let's try a simpler example. If you have a homomorphism from $\mathbb{Z}$ to a group $G$, can you find a map from a one-point set to $G$ (in some "natural" way)?
Jun 4, 2015 10:24
Map that single point to the identity in G?
whatever 0 maps to via the homomorphism, that is.
@SohamChowdhury $0$ maps to the identity.
So that would be natural, but probably a bad idea as it will not depend on the homomorphism
What's the problem with that?
@SohamChowdhury Well, there would not be much chance of making the various diagrams commute then
Jun 4, 2015 10:27
What diagrams? I thought this was a completely separate example.
Or are you talking about the case of $F(\{\bullet\})$?
@SohamChowdhury It was meant to lead into the original example
Oh.
Well, I could map the single point to any $g\in G$.
Not sure how "natural" that is.
OrI could map it to whatever element I need to to make the free group diagram commute.
Is that what you're looking for?
@SohamChowdhury Well, could you map it to something such that if you only knew the map from the one point to $G$ (i.e. that one point in $G$), you could figure out what the homomorphism from $\mathbb{Z}$ was?
Well, do I know the map $A\to \Bbb Z$?
@SohamChowdhury Yes
Jun 4, 2015 10:32
hi
@robjohn I see someone liked my question and added a bounty :)
the prob one we were discussing yesterday
do you think your previous method can be applied to it?
@TobiasKildetoft I'm not sure. If I know the map $A\to Z$, I know that there's a "special element" $n$ in $\Bbb Z$ that $\bullet$ maps to.
@SohamChowdhury Right
@SohamChowdhury You do know that $\mathbb{Z}$ is the free group on one generator, right?
Yes.
Oh.
So that n is just the word "$\bullet$", in a way.
right (and it should probably be $1$ or $-1$)
so if $f(\bullet) = g\in G$, the homomorphism is just $\varphi(n) = g^n$.
if $\bullet$ goes to 1.
because $\varphi(1) = \varphi(j(\bullet)) = g$, and then the fact that $\varphi$ is a hom implies what I wrote above.
(I'm using the notation in the second image I posted)
Ping me when you get back, please.
Jun 4, 2015 10:42
@SohamChowdhury Still here
So was that correct?
@SohamChowdhury Yeah
Okay. :)
How do we get to the two-generator case?
@SohamChowdhury Well, now you have two maps from $\mathbb{Z}$, and you want two points
Oh.
I think I see what to do.
So the two copies of Z take the place of the singleton set, I guess?
Jun 4, 2015 10:45
Yeah
@TobiasKildetoft What two points are you talking about?
@SohamChowdhury Well, you want a map from a set with two elements, so that means finding two points
Okay. $A\to G$, right.
So let $f(x) = $ whatever $0 \in Z_1$ maps to, and $f(y) =$ whatever $0 \in Z_2$ maps to?
I reached the evil level... see my profile xD
Not $0$, $1$
Jun 4, 2015 10:50
Oh, that's the generator.
Right.
The mark of the beast @Masacroso :O
Still there, @Tobias?
@SohamChowdhury Yeah
So? What next?
@SohamChowdhury So we now have a map from $A$ to $G$, right?
Jun 4, 2015 10:55
Yeah.
@SohamChowdhury Which gives us a unique map from $F$ to $G$
Yes.
And we're done?
Yes, because then $F$ satisfies the universal property of the coproduct
Okay. I'll give myself some time to digest that. Thanks. :)
 
Conversation ended Jun 4, 2015 at 10:56.