Hey, does anyone know how to prove that for $f$ an isomorphism (in a category), $(f^{-1})^{-1} = f$? I mean, is there any kind of cancellation law so that $ab = cb = 1_A \implies a = c$ for isomorphisms? (Or is it even required?)
I could then just compose on the right by $f^{-1}$ so that $$(f^{-1})^{-1}f^{-1} = ff^{-1} = 1_A$$.