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12:00 AM
@peterh Yeah, I've done my reading on them already. I really wish they sold domains on their TLD, meur.er would be an awesome site
 
@BernardMeurer For that you are probably not enough rich. What about info? There is a meurer.info, but it is used by xing.com/profile/Harald_Meurer
 
nah, .info is lame
 
And the good old .org?
 
.xyz, .com, .org. .io are nice
.org is being used
 
I know quite... interesting site on .info
uhm, sad
 
12:05 AM
all it has is a dumb site with almost nothing in it
I was considering .io and .cc
 
.io ! .xyz looks like the trashbox of the net. But .io is wonderful.
 
user218912
12:27 AM
@0celo7 hi
 
@IceLord Busy
 
user218912
not asking for help...
 
@IceLord I need like seven books.
I have a problem...
 
user218912
alright
 
user218912
i'll buy you one of them
 
user218912
12:41 AM
if you help me
 
not now
I have a really hard analysis problem...
 
user218912
can you just tell me what $\frac{\partial A_\mu}{\partial A_\nu}$ is?
 
user218912
ACM won't tell me.
 
user218912
:(
 
why won't he?
 
user218912
12:42 AM
i couldn't figure it out all day
 
b/c it's trivial?
 
user218912
because he says i should figure it out
 
user218912
yes
 
...are you bribing me
$E\subset\Bbb R^n$ linear subspace, $\Bbb R^n-E$ connected $\Leftrightarrow\dim E\le n-2$.
Solve that, then sure.
 
user218912
:|
 
user218912
12:44 AM
nah i'm a physics guy
 
user218912
but i'm bad at physics...
 
user218912
so help me plz
 
the proof is approaching a page!
that's never good
 
user218912
why? aren't a lot of proofs like 500 pages long?
 
no proof is 500 pages long
a homework proof that is a page is pretty long
 
user218912
12:46 AM
 
user218912
:o
 
user218912
@0celo7 anyway are you going to tell me what it is please?
 
user218912
if you don't I'll have to ask my TA and look like a dumbass in front of him
 
what are your ideas on it
I figured it out before coming to PSE
else I'd have some sympathy
 
user218912
no idea.
 
user218912
12:57 AM
since these are the same vector fields just with different indices
 
user218912
so i don't know how to deal with that
 
I don't know if I should help.
I generally trust @ACuriousMind
 
user218912
ahhhh
 
user218912
i'll figure it out eventually but i'll be wasting so much time
 
user218912
so please tell me
 
1:00 AM
what is $\partial x/\partial x$
 
user218912
$x$ is a vector?
 
$x$ is a number
wait
what do you think $A^\mu$ is
 
user218912
a vector field
 
no
fucking physicists
$A^\mu$ is a number
 
user218912
;-;
 
user218912
1:02 AM
okay
 
it's $A^\mu e_\mu$ that's a vector field
 
user218912
so then it's just 1?
 
@IceLord What is?
 
user218912
$\partial x/ \partial x$
 
user218912
and same for the "vector field"
 
user218912
1:03 AM
am I being stupid
 
write it out.
@IceLord a little, write it out.
 
@0celo7 Yes well as I recall your institution has some issues with that.
 
Proof:
($\Leftarrow$) We will show $\Bbb R^n-E$ is in fact path connected. It is sufficient to show this for $\dim E=n-2$, for any vector subspace of dimension $n-3$ or less can be realized as a subspace of an $n-2$ dimensional subspace. Let $p,q\in \Bbb R^n-E$. Let $L\subset\Bbb R^n$ be the straight line from $p$ to $q$. (We also use the notation $L=\overline{pq}$.) We set up coordinates $x^1,\dotsc, x^n$ with the origin on $E$ and with $E$ spanning the first $n-2$ coordinates, that is, $E$ is the level set $x^{n-1}=x^n=0$. Since $p,q\notin E$, at least one of the last two coordinates of $p$ and
@DanielSank this was to people in my department!
 
@0celo7 Yes,
your institution has issues.
 
user218912
$\frac{\partial}{\partial A_\alpha}\big[ \frac{m^2}{2}\eta^{\omega\xi} [A_\omega A_\xi ]\big] = m^2$ ? @0celo7
 
1:12 AM
Christ
No, what is $\partial A_\mu/\partial A_\nu$
@DanielSank one of the profs will think I'm crazy if he gets the email late
I discussed with him what I said in the email this morning
 
user218912
@0celo7 $1$?
 
NO
he probably got it a few hours ago...
 
user218912
fml
 
@IceLord what is $\partial x^i/\partial x^j$
you'd better know this
Zee explains this
 
user218912
in GR or QFT?
 
1:15 AM
No. Figure it out yourself.
You're not learning anything if you look this up
 
user218912
i don't even know what to look up
 
user218912
if i did I wouldn't be asking for help xD
 
user218912
this looks really familiar
 
user218912
i probably learned it before
 
@DanielSank do you know how to help him without giving it completely away?
 
user218912
1:21 AM
or... how about you just tell me and tell me the reason and i'll learn
 
user218912
so next time i won't have this issue
 
@IceLord let's think concretely, $\Bbb R^2$ with coordinates $(x,y)$
@IceLord Because as much as I hate to admit it, pain is best way to learn.
@IceLord What is $\partial y/\partial x$ in these coordinates?
 
@0celo7 What's the question?
Hi, @Milou.
 
@DanielSank What is $\partial A_\mu/\partial A_\nu$?
 
@0celo7 What's $A$?
 
1:24 AM
@DanielSank Vector potential
 
user218912
@0celo7 just the definition of the partial derivative.
 
Haha, ok then I have no idea. Notation unclear (keep in mind I don't do this stuff every day).
 
user218912
what do you mean what is it?
 
@IceLord Compute it!
 
user218912
for what?
 
user218912
1:25 AM
you didn't give me $y$
 
@DanielSank How about: coordinates $x^i$ on $\Bbb R^n$, what is $\partial x^i/\partial x^j$?
 
@0celo7 Also, I'm somewhat reluctant to spend time helping someone with QFT when they haven't gone through quantum yet.
 
@IceLord oh my god
 
@0celo7 Bad physicist notation.
That's what it is.
;)
@0celo7 Dude, be nice.
 
@DanielSank ...as your mathematical overlord I declare that as perfectly good notation.
 
1:26 AM
Seriously. If you're getting frustrated just stop. Don't put people down, even implicitly.
 
What's wrong with it?
(the notation, not my attitude)
 
@0celo7 Are $x^i$ functions?
 
@DanielSank Yes
The coordinate functions
 
So then you're taking the derivative of a function with respect to another function?
Your argument is invalid.
 
yes
nope
 
1:27 AM
I have no idea what that means.
Enlighten me.
(FYI I was planning to write a blog post about this issue, that physicists confuse variables and functions all the time)
 
@DanielSank First, can I point out you do that every time you do the chain rule.
@DanielSank Also how're you gonna tell me you don't understand this. The Euler-Lagrange equation are literally derivatives wrt. functions.
 
@0celo7 False.
 
$\partial L/\partial q$ is the derivative wrt. the function $q=q(t)$.
 
@0celo7 That's rather different.
Oh that.
 
@DanielSank This is exactly what we're doing here
 
1:29 AM
I get very confused when I actually try to think about what that notation means.
 
@DanielSank Do you want me to explain?
 
The derivative of a one variable function is obvious.
 
user218912
@DanielSank that doesn't make any sense. if I was good with quantum and index notation I wouldn't need help...
 
Yes
 
user218912
I'm asking for help because I'm lacking...
 
1:30 AM
The derivative of a multivariable function is a linear transformation.
 
@DanielSank hi! I'm sorry late to reply, but got distracted
 
@0celo7 I think of a function $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$.
The derivative, $Df$, is a linear transformation.
It's matrix representation is an $m \times n$ matrix.
 
@DanielSank Sure
 
Ok, here's the thing: to me, linear transformations exist apart from any basis.
(You've explained this to me before, but I always forget)
(I have to rederive this argument every time)
Now, we can invent coordinate functions $x^i$.
 
user218912
@0celo7 what's wrong with this?
 
1:33 AM
@IceLord I gave you $y$
 
$x^i: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, right?
 
You have a bad habit of not reading...
@DanielSank yes.
 
Oh good, I'm retaining information. That's a good sign.
 
user218912
@0celo7 $(1, 0)$?
 
How does one prove that $\mathbb{R}$ is infinite?
 
1:34 AM
Ok so for a point $p$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$, we get some values $x^i(p)$.
 
@BernardMeurer $x\in \Bbb R\implies x+1\in\Bbb R$.
 
Those are the coordinates of the point $p$.
 
@0celo7 Ah, because it's inductive
makes sense
 
@BernardMeurer Don't know what that means, but if you do, ok.
@DanielSank Yes
 
I suppose we can say something like $f(p) = f(x^1(p), x^2(p),\ldots,x^n(p))$ or some such nonsense.
 
1:36 AM
Yes
 
user218912
is this discussion related to my problem?
 
@DanielSank I think you're making this too hard. You're viewing $\Bbb R^n$ as a manifold.
 
This is slightly annoying notation to me, but fine, whatever. Now $f$ means a function of a point or a function of a bunch of numbers.
@0celo7 You're right. Should I not do that?
 
How does one define a function $c(\mathbb{L})$ that yields the number of elements in $\mathbb{L}$? Would a sum work?
 
If you view $\Bbb R^n$ as a vector space (as one does in analysis), then $p=(x^1,\dotsc, x^n)$ literally. By definition of $\Bbb R^n$.
 
1:37 AM
$\mathbb{L}$ being some set
 
@0celo7 Yeah ok fine.
 
@IceLord Maybe.
@IceLord If I tell you what it is will you figure it out?
 
@IceLord It will be. @0celo7 is educating me.
 
@BernardMeurer No.
 
Ok, @0celo7 I've got $f$ and it eats $n$ real numbers and poops out $m$ real numbers.
Very good.
Now what?
 
1:38 AM
@BernardMeurer Do you have to construct this function?
Also what is $\mathbb L$?
 
@0celo7 Yes, I'm curious to know now
 
You're in the "let's use weird notation because it looks cool" phase.
A set is $S$. Or $X$. Not $\mathbb L$.
 
$\mathbb{L}$ is some set, can be anything
Okay then
$X$
 
@BernardMeurer There are some standard notations for things
Fields are $k$ or $\Bbb K$
(for instance)
if you say "let $\mathfrak Z$ be a field" people will look at you weird
@BernardMeurer Ok, is your set $X$ finite or infinite? Or are you asking how to tell?
If it's infinite, then $|X|$ (standard notation for your $c$) is not easy to define.
@DanielSank What are we trying to do again?
 
user218912
@DanielSank him saying things like that doesn't put me down, at least he is helping me. your ideology that I shouldn't be helped because I'm lacking in an area is what puts me down.
 
1:43 AM
@0celo7 Understand what $\partial A^\nu / \partial A^\mu$ means.
 
@BernardMeurer A set $A\subset\Bbb N$ is said to be finite if $A$ has an element $a\in A$ such that $a\ge b$ for any $b\in A$.
Make sense?
 
@0celo7 $X$ is some set, I can't tell whether it's infinite or not, I'm looking for a general solution
 
@BernardMeurer There isn't a general solution.
 
@IceLord Dude, I think it's silly to spend time helping you with QFT when you haven't gone through quantum! That's not putting you down, it's trying to help.
Disagree all you want, of course.
 
What's $B$?
 
1:44 AM
A typo!
 
Ah :)
 
user218912
@DanielSank well I told you I'm in the course and I can't drop anymore.
 
user218912
so you saying that is not helping.
 
Thinking
 
@DanielSank Ah, well. One has to be somewhat pragmatic with that one.
Not sure if that's the right word.
It's $\delta_{\mu\nu}$.
 
1:45 AM
finite?
 
@0celo7 I just want to understand what the notation means.
@0celo7 Yes yes, but why?
 
user218912
@0celo7 I just found that.
 
user218912
why is it that.
 
A wild typo appears. @BernardMeurer tries logic! It's not very effective.
 
@DanielSank Because $\partial A^\mu/\partial A^\mu=1$ (no sum) by definition of the derivative, and $A^\nu$ does not depend on $A^\mu$ for $\nu\ne \mu$.
This can be made rigorous.
 
user218912
1:46 AM
@0celo7 DUDE
 
user218912
this is what I said
 
@DanielSank lol
 
user218912
but you said
 
But it involves vector bundles.
 
user218912
the last term is not 0
 
user218912
1:46 AM
so I thought i was wrong
 
@0celo7 So did you really mean finite?
 
@IceLord It's not
It's $\delta_{\mu\nu}$ contracted with stuff
 
user218912
oh...
 
@BernardMeurer A set is finite if it has a maximal element, yes I think I agree with that.
 
user218912
right
 
1:47 AM
OOOH
Okay
that makes perfect sense!
 
@BernardMeurer WAIT
Now let's look at $X$
 
Wait
what about a minimal element?
 
We say that $X$ is finite if there is a bijection $X\to A\subset\Bbb N$ for some finite $A$.
@BernardMeurer Axiom of the natural numbers is that any nonempty set has a minimal element.
 
bijection?
Oh, we're dealing with $\mathbb{N}$, forgot that
 
@BernardMeurer One-one, onto.
@DanielSank Ok, I will try to make it rigorous
 
1:50 AM
$\mathbb{N}$ is the intersection of all inductive subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ right?
 
When we're doing field theory on a manifold $M$, we're really taking fields to have values in a vector bundle $E\to M$.
We can do calculus on $E$.
 
user218912
@0celo7 so does it become $\frac{m^2}{2} \eta^{\omega\xi} \delta_{\omega\alpha} \delta_{\xi\alpha}$?
 
@DanielSank That's why we need covariant derivatives for field theory on curved spacetime.
So $\partial A^\mu/\partial A^\nu$ means we're doing $\partial x^\mu/\partial x^\nu$ on the vector bundle
The coordinates $x^\mu$ are physically identified with the field values $A^\mu$
@IceLord perhaps with a factor of 2, not sure.
I haven't worked it out
@BernardMeurer No clue, I haven't taken PhD set theory.
 
user218912
@0celo7 why a 2?
 
This isn't PhD stuff dude, it's just analysis
 
1:52 AM
@BernardMeurer What does "inductive" mean?
@BernardMeurer It's not analysis.
@IceLord product rule
 
user218912
so then there would have to be an $A$ too right?
 
A set is said to be inductive if $x\in X\Rightarrow x+1\in X$
 
I think that $\frac{1}{2}$ needs to get canceled.
@BernardMeurer What? That last $\in$ makes no sense.
 
user218912
I knew it
 
user218912
10 hours ago, by IceLord
@ACuriousMind do I also use product rule?
 
1:54 AM
I think that's the definition of an inductive set, my notes are far
 
user218912
but I thought ACM said no.
 
X is said to be inductive if for all x in X, x+1 is in X
 
@IceLord Proof?
@BernardMeurer x contains zero?
I think you've got at least one typo.
 
X
NO
Wait
 
user218912
@0celo7 he said use whatever derivative rule or something like that.
 
user218912
1:55 AM
thought that implied it's not product rule.
 
Uh, $\cup$ is not the notation for "and"
 
the 0 thing doesn't need at all
 
@IceLord ACM does not know the American word for product rule.
 
user218912
it's or.
 
He knows it as Leibnitz rule.
 
user218912
1:56 AM
oh ok lol
 
@IceLord No, that's $\vee$.
And is $\land$.
@BernardMeurer hmm?
 
user218912
that's in logic language.
 
Then I can produce an induct set $\{2,3,4,\dotsc\}\ne\Bbb N$.
So your claim is wrong
 
user218912
@0celo7 why is it product rule because $A_\mu$ is just a number as you said
 
@BernardMeurer Please tell me you're not including $0$ in $\Bbb N$.
 
1:57 AM
It's just $$\text{A set is said to be inductive when }\forall x\in X\Rightarrow x+1\in X$$
 
@IceLord Product rule works for "just numbers"
 
user218912
true
 
@BernardMeurer Then $\Bbb N$ is certainly not the intersection of all inductive subsets of $\Bbb R$.
 
user218912
idk what i'm saying
 
That doesn't prove my claim wrong?
 
1:58 AM
@BernardMeurer Don't use logical quantifiers like $\forall$ when typing a simple definition.
They're perhaps acceptable in long, tedious computations, but it's always best to type out the words.
 
1
Q: $\mathbb N$ as the intersection of all inductive subsets of $\mathbb R$

Aaron HallI read in an undergraduate real analysis textbook that the set of the natural numbers $\mathbb N$ is defined as the intersection of all inductive subsets of $\mathbb R$. However, I'm having trouble understanding what this means, specifically what an inductive subset of $\mathbb R$ is referring t...

 
Clearly you're using a different definition of inductive...
 

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