@BalarkaSen Ah, they call it "Complex infinity". (So, when the magnitude goes to infinity but the angle doesn't converge, I guess. It'd correspond to the extra point on the Riemann sphere.)
I have a math question for you. Given the current bandwidth of the chat, how many more daily users of room 36 can we have on chat.stackexchange.com before there is too many messages being sent per second for anything to be able to keep track of a conversation or get help?
mmmm I dont know about infinity.. a computer does not have infinite memory to allow an infinite people to be logged in, I guess we can use such a broad limit doesnt matter right
That's a good question, well don't let my lack of understanding of induction let you get confused about what it has to do with circles and why I asked about the circle.
For example, what would a proof by induction look like for the statement for all even integers $2<n<10000000$ there exist prime numbers $p$ and $q$ such that $n=p+q$?
This is a totally different topic, but I have some kind of abstract-algebraic-structure-thingy that I want to categorize. I know a variety of its properties (such as non-associative, right-distributive, there's two "types"(?) of elements, idempotent multiplication, etc.), and I want to know if something similar has been studied before and/or what the proper axioms are. I don't know if this is something worth asking on the main site. I can give more details if you want.
@MATHASKER Just how I said above, use an inverse function to find a basis of your solution space, then find the solution inside your desired region, that'll be $x$. I'm sure you know what to do once you have $x$.
If there were a way to move the main part of the trampoline entirely to its boundary without needing to rip or tear it, you could accidentally "break" a trampoline and leave a huge hole in the middle.
tbh I think working with the angle directly gives more insight into what's actually going on, but $\sin(x)^2 + \cos(x)^2 = 1$ is probably more well known than $\sin(\arccos(x)) = \sqrt{1-x^2}$.
if the equation gives me something like cos(2x) = 1, when i take the inverse of cos to cancel out the the cos in the left hand side, do i divide by two after taking the inverse or before?
@MATHASKER I want to make sure you didn't just tack a minus sign onto your answer lol. That's not an ok manipulation to arbitrarily negate things. Using the negative output of square root however, is perfectly legal.