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12:00 AM
@Semiclassical I own the second edition, and it looks the same
 
the pdf is of the first
 
which book is this?
 
Cheeger & Ebin
 
yeah, idgi
 
12:03 AM
It might be too involved for a main site question, what do you think?
 
it's a bit specific, yeah
only thing i can think of is that in the next line after that equation, they don't only require $\Vert c'\Vert=0$ which is what i'd expect if they're trying to kill off the second term
but rather as well have $c'(t)=\lambda(t)(\partial/\partial r)$
which makes me wonder if the previous equation is only intended to be valid under that assumption
and that thought seems consistent with the bound on $\Vert c' \Vert$ they give earlier in relation to that
problem is, I don't have a geometric sense of what $c'(t)=\lambda(t)(\partial /\partial r)$ means
 
i woke up. bleh.
 
$\partial/\partial r$ points outwards in the radial direction
It means the tangent is, up to a scale, pointing radially outwards
 
today's riemannian geometry?
 
right. wouldn't that require that the curve always be moving radially outwards? (not necessarily at a constant speed)
 
12:09 AM
@Semiclassical Yes.
 
i mean, that squiggly curve definitely doesn't satisfy that condition
 
You can adjust the speed issue by redefining the parameter
 
I don't like how it's all written out, but I think the key is that tangent-vectors-are-radial condition
because that automatically locks you into moving along one radial ray
you can overshoot and swing back in that case, of course, but you can't wiggle
 
So, we're assuming that $L(c)=r(c(t_0))+\int_{t_0}^1||c'||\,dt$?
@BalarkaSen feel free to contribute
 
<--- dunno anything about riemannian geometry
 
12:12 AM
eh, I don't either
 
hence "whereof one cannot speak thereof one must be silent"
 
this is really more a purely geometric point, i think
otherwise i wouldn't be able to say shite :P
 
Ah, I know of one more Riem geo book
I'm sitting in the library next to the geometry section
 
What I don't get is to what extent they've actually assumed that condition on $c'(t)$
 
ok, let's hope Chavel uses a similar proof
Nope, he uses Lang's proof
Crap
Where is Mike Miller when you need him
 
12:24 AM
@0celo7 i don't get the statement about the two orientation on preimage of subfolds by maps transverse to it. i may ask you tomorrow if i don't figure it out after i wake up tomorrow morning
 
What statement?
 
G-P proposition on 101 page.
 
I found that reading the proof helped me understand it
 
Isn't that applicable to every theorem in the world? :P
Anyhow, I'll try to do it before I read it or ask you.
 
knowing the proof doesn't always clarify what's actually being asserted, though
sometimes that's clear regardless of the proof
 
12:27 AM
yeah, the assertion is quite clear
 
It's a technical point that taking $(\partial f)^{-1}(Z)$ and then orienting it is slightly different than taking $f^{-1}(Z)$ and then taking $\partial(f^{-1}(Z))$ and giving it the boundary orientation as the boundary of $f^{-1}(Z)$
 
I can't see immediately why they'd be same upto possible a sign. It might be technical, but it's important - it seems I gotta use that to prove oriented degree is homotopy invariant.
 
Hmm?
Do you not see why they're the same as sets?
The sign is just the orientation
 
@0celo7 Sure, that is obvious.
I am speaking of the orientation...
 
@BalarkaSen Then I don't understand "I can't see immediately why they'd be same upto possible a sign"
If they're the same as sets/manifolds, they can only differ by a sign
 
12:31 AM
I meant the orientation on them.
 
...any two orientations only differ by a sign, ever
See the proposition on page 97
 
That's a triviality. Clearly I meant (-1)^codim(Z) when I said "sign".
It's not clear where that pops in.
 
oh
you have to move a normal vector past $Z$'s tangent space, or something
 
evidently not so clearly :P
 
Not a very interesting proof
 
12:33 AM
Sup
 
do you know any Riemannian geometry?
 
@Semiclassical It's unlikely that I'd ask about a triviality (aka, manifolds admit two orientations).
Or anyone would, really.
 
@BalarkaSen no, it was not clear
 
@0celo7 Oh god no.
 
@BalarkaSen that's not trivial
 
12:34 AM
I disagree.
But whatever.
 
trivial is a fighting word :P
 
@0celo7 Closest I ever got was Number Theory
 
@RefathBari That's the opposite side of math
 
@0celo7 No wonder. I'm more around the comptetition side of math
I.e. MATHCOUNTS
 
@Semiclassical so, what do you think is going on in that proof?
what's the conclusion
 
12:36 AM
the one above?
 
I've lost most of my evening to this
@Semiclassical the Riem geo one
 
i'm not sure. i do think it comes down to their use of that one condition
 
Sorry for interrupting, but do you guys know any room specifically for math competitions?
 
but it's not clear to what extent they actually employ it. so i find the argument confusing.
 
I think it's nontrivial that if $c'$ satisfies that condition then the two $t_1$s are equivalent.
You'd have...let's see
 
12:38 AM
maybe. geometrically it seems apparent
 
@0celo7 Arguing about trivial statements being nontrivial and clear-from-context statements being unclear is not helpful, though more annoying.
 
since if you can't wobble back and forth, then the counterexample you proposed is forbidden
 
$\int_0^{t_1}||c'||\,dt=\int_0^{t_1}\lambda\,dt$
assuming you have that condition
I don't see why that's $||v||$
$\lambda$ has nothing to do with $v$
 
that only gets to the $\Vert c' \Vert=1$ part, though
you've also got it always in the direction $\partial/\partial r$ which seems geometrically the more important point
 
uh $c$ does not have arc length parametrization
 
12:41 AM
hello, would you guys mind helping me with a proof? I think I have it but just wanted to get a sanity check. Trying to prove $\lim \limits_{x \to 0}\sqrt[3]{4x}\left(\sin\frac{5}{x^2}\right)=0$
 
it's really $||c'||=\lambda$
because $||\partial_r||=1$
 
yeah, you're right
it's the second one i meant
careless on my part
 
hmm?
 
i meant the $\partial_r$ version
 
1990s GTM books are so yellow
 
12:43 AM
speaking quite loosely, i think the point is that if $c'(t)=\lambda(t)\partial_r$, then $\lambda(t)$ is roughly equivalent to $dr/dt$
and in that case you would have $\int \lambda\,dt=\int dr =\Vert v \Vert$
 
Ah, that might be the chain rule?
 
So with my proof I came up with $|n|\lt \frac{\epsilon^3}{4}$
 
@0celo7 that's the heuristic, at any rate
 
@the_new_guy what is $n$?
 
what i wrote may not really be sensible taken literally
 
12:45 AM
@SteamyRoot Sorry, it should be $|x|$
 
One more book: Helgason
 
ugh $x$ sorry getting my variables mixed up!
 
And you're trying to prove it using epsilon-delta or so?
 
correct
 
literally no clue what I just read
that notation
 
12:48 AM
@0celo7 you're talking about what I typed up?
 
lol it's on the exponential map for Lie groups
not Riemannian stuff
@the_new_guy no
 
@0celo7 ahhh ok lol
 
@Semiclassical nope, Helgason has the standard proof :(
 
i'd find someone who knows this stuff and ask them :)
 
I've checked do Carmo, Lee, Lee, Petersen, Walschap, Lang, Milnor, Jost, Helgason, Kobayashi
 
12:49 AM
rather than finding a physicist who can only handwave
 
@the_new_guy Yeah, it does sound logical then that you get something along the lines of $|x| < \delta = \epsilon^3/4$ gives you limit $< \epsilon$
 
I'm running out of diff geo books to check
@Semiclassical no one around at 9PM
 
is this for an assignment?
 
No, the assignment is a different book that proves the same thing a different way
And I understand that
but I was reminded of this one
 
i mean, it sucks if you can't clarify it right now. but if there's not a deadline then you can just be patient :P
 
12:51 AM
Patience is not my strong suit
 
No, I suppose not :)
probably best to find something else to procrastinate with
 
I'm not procrastinating, I'm obsessed
 
eh, two variations on the word 'compulsion'
 
@SteamyRoot OK great! I basically used the fact that $\left|\sin^3\frac{5}{x^2}\right|\le|x|\lt\frac{\epsilon^3}{4}$
 
Whoa what?
 
12:58 AM
@SteamyRoot the first inequality is true
 
True, sure, but necessary?
 
@SteamyRoot I don't understand, what's wrong with it?
 
Well, by that inequality, did you try to put the sine under the cubic root or so?
I would've just used that $|\sin x| \leq 1$ for all $x$, hence you only need to worry about the cubic root of $4x$.
 
I see
 
Well, either way, the proof is pretty much the same
So you're right
 
1:12 AM
Given that $\epsilon$ is not dependent upon $x$, does that mean this is uniformly convergent on $(0,2)$?
 
0
Q: Geodesics in geodesic balls

0celo7It is well-known that in a geodesic ball containing points $p$ and $q$, the radial geodesic between them is the unique minimizing curve. I'm trying to follow the proof of this given in Cheeger & Ebin (AMS Chelsea edition, page 8). They seem to take a slightly different approach than usual. Let $...

 
1:50 AM
tell me something good
 
2:03 AM
@ForeverMozart the nullity of the energy Hessian is the dimension of the space of Jacobi fields with conjugate points
 
 
3 hours later…
4:40 AM
What do you call equations that the answer of is just a smaller equation? E.g., where the 'answer' is X+2Y ?
 
 
7 hours later…
11:21 AM
@TedShifrin I was in fact given the problem about dimension of space of homogeneous polynomials today, parsed in a different way (choose fixed no of balls out of a collection of balls allowing multiplicity). I worked out an elementary argument by the end of school, suddenly realizing what you mean by box and carets
If I pick k balls out of n (caring about order) allowing multiplicity, it's same as partition a bunch of collection of balls by a few walls, say. You need precisely k - 1 walls, you so you have n + k - 1 objects, and you're choosing k of them out of there the plain vanilla way.
That's C(n + k - 1, k) :)
Great technique. Took me a long while to figure it out, probably couldn't have if I didn't hear "box and carets".
 
12:20 PM
@Semiclassical 1000% sure there's a typo.
The $=$ should be a $\ge$.
You get equality by assuming $c'=\lambda\partial_r$, then you cut off the curve at $t_1$.
The rest of the proof works then.
 
 
1 hour later…
1:41 PM
@0celo7 okay, that makes more sense.
 
Hey, everyone! A quick question on notation. Say $$\mathbf{A}\subseteq\Bbb{R}\ \land \mathbf{B}\subseteq\Bbb{R}$$ and $f:\mathbf{A}\rightarrow\mathbf{B}$. What does then the notation $$f(\mathbf{A})=\mathbf{B}$$
mean? Is it equivalent to the function $f$ being surjective?
 
$f(\mathbf{A}) := \{f(a) : a \in \mathbf{A}\}$. The equality is an actual equality of sets, so yes it is equivalent
(two sets are equal when they have exactly the same elements)
 
Ah, that makes a ton of sense. Thank you, sir.
 
"For every element $b$ of $B$ (the codomain of $f$) there is an element $a$ of $A$ (the domain of $f$) such that $f(a)=b$."
which is, yeah, literally the definition of surjective.
 
that notation is pretty common, so it's a good thing to be comfortable with
 
1:52 PM
Agreed. Sometimes notation is the only confusing aspect about a proof :p
 
in my experience it's most often the notation, for sure
 
That's the best way to write surjective in symbols
 
it does nicely capture that surjectivity is as much about $A$ and $B$ as it is $f$
@0celo7 sounds like you're satisfied re: that equation having a typo
 
@Semiclassical Yes. I will bring it up with my prof in our next meeting. He loves that book, but he probably didn't bother ever reading the "review" part ;)
 
2:01 PM
@Semiclassical Yeah, it shows that if $B$ is any larger, $f$ will definitely no longer be surjective, and if $A$ is any smaller, $f$ might not be surjective.
 
right.
 
Reading Milnor is a struggle. I need like 5 reference texts
I wish I had Hermione's magic bag, but for books
 
bookbag of holding?
 
Is that what her bag was called?
 
2:04 PM
Did you read/watch them?
 
I'm making a pun on the D&D item "bag of holding"
 
Showing your age, bro
 
pfft
i haven't actually played D&D all that much. not a lot of opportunities for it
 
If you don't know what my avatar is, you're also showing your age
 
it looks like a bunch of diamonds
 
2:06 PM
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i see.
not the sort've thing i pay attention to whatsoever
 
Heine-Borel is such a black box theorem
 
2:33 PM
@0celo7 What about $A\xrightarrow fB\to0$? (Not actually)
 
@AkivaWeinberger What is that
What is $B\to 0$
 
Notation for surjective. It's an "exact sequence", not sure if you've heard of them
though I think it only really makes sense for groups
 
I know what an exact sequence is
What is $0$
Empty set?
 
@AkivaWeinberger it makes sense in abelian categories (which groups are not actually)
 
The trivial group
Oh, OK. So they need to be abelian.
 
2:35 PM
Most objects are not groups
 
$(\{0\},+)$
 
it takes less for it to make sense, but it need no longer imply surjective (as far as I recall)
hmm, or rather the other way around, not all surjective (i.e. epi) morphisms can be put into such an exact sequence
 
You sure? Exactness means that the image, which is $f(A)$ in this case, is equal to the kernel, which is all of $B$.
 
@AkivaWeinberger well, or something that looks like that when taken in more generality (I can never remember precisely how it goes)
 
2:38 PM
I think you are right that it implies surjective, because it means that the map is a cokernel (and these are epi). But not all epi morphisms need be cokernels in general
(this is the dual version of what goes wrong for groups where not all monomorphisms are kernels)
 
@AkivaWeinberger Ah, right, that works for vector spaces
 
Hm. But "epi" is slightly different from "surjective" in some categories
 
$0\to A\to B\to C\to 0$ means $A\to B$ is injective and $B\to C$ is surjective
 
@AkivaWeinberger right, because "surjective" is not defined in categorical terms
 
Yep. Which means, for vector spaces, I believe, that $B\simeq A\oplus C$.
 
2:40 PM
But $f(A)=B$ is certainly better
 
@AkivaWeinberger Yes, although I've never been really convinced of that
I should prove it again
 
I think you can make an argument using bases
 
@AkivaWeinberger yes, all short exact sequences of vector spaces split (fields are semisimple)
 
You just show that $A\oplus C$ has the same dimension as $B$
It might work for infinite-dimensional too
But I'm unconcerned with those for the time being
 
2:41 PM
And now I'm wondering about spaces without bases (in a choice-less world)
 
@0celo7 in fact, the statement can be strengthened (the sequence splitting is stronger than just having an isomorphism)
 
(since you need the axiom of choice to prove all vector spaces have a basis)
 
@AkivaWeinberger of course
I dislike choice but I like vector spaces having bases
 
@AkivaWeinberger right, and I think it also lurks somewhere when trying the more theoretical approach using semisimple algebras, since we need it to show that all rings have maximal ideals
 
I like my infinite sets to be able to be split into two infinite subsets.
The fact that that can fail without choice is just so bizzare.
 
2:43 PM
And well-ordering isn't?
 
And I like ultrafilters. I think, if I had to give up choice, I would still insist on the ultrafilter lemma.
@0celo7 Forget well-ordering, even; orders at all aren't guaranteed without choice. $\cal P(\Bbb R)$ might not have a total order.
 
Typos are the worst
@AkivaWeinberger I don't know what that means, set theory is my enemy
 
(Incidentally, you can prove that everything has a total order using the ultrafilter lemma.)
 
I do know that some results in geometry and general relativity use e.g. Zorn
 
@0celo7 Just any order. A $\le$ relation that acts like $\le$ relations should.
$\cal P(\Bbb R)$ is the set of subsets of $\Bbb R$.
 
2:46 PM
@AkivaWeinberger well, I would not usually require that a $\leq$ relation be total
 
@AkivaWeinberger With choice, what is the ordering?
 
anyway, it is possible to construct an uncountable well-ordered set without choice. It is just not possible to show that it has the same cardinality as the reals without choice
 
@TobiasKildetoft Interesting.
 
@0celo7 Well-order it. Well orders are types of orders (aka total orders aka linear orders).
 
I recall this being an exercise in Munkres' topology book
 
2:47 PM
@AkivaWeinberger I was asking if one can actually find the order.
Because it does not seem to me that it should have an ordering.
 
Well, you need some amount of choice for it, so I can't give you one explicitly.
But I still feel like every set should have an ordering (like $\Bbb R$ does).
 
Sometimes I wonder if I should go down the constructivist rabbit hole.
But I want to live life without ever seeing the ZFC axioms
 
Do you know about the set $\omega+\omega$, by any chance?
Apparently, you can't prove it exists without the "F" part of ZFC.
 
@AkivaWeinberger me?
 
(Which I believe is for the axiom of replacement.)
 
2:51 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Nope, what does that set do?
I'm completely disinterested in set theory for the sake of set theory.
 
Essentially, you start building this hierarchy of sets:
$0$ is the empty set.
 
Never thought much about that distinction. I mean, a set like $\omega + \omega$ is so easy to describe using the usual techniques.
 
$1$ is $\{0\}=\{\emptyset\}$.
 
Basically, you need axiom of infinity and being able to take products
 
$2$ is $\{0,1\}=\{\emptyset,\{\emptyset\}\}$.
 
2:52 PM
@AkivaWeinberger I know how the natural numbers are constructed.
 
Etc. So $n$ is $\{0,\dots,n-1\}$.
Then you define $\omega=\{0,1,2,\dots\}$, the set of all natural numbers.
So, {{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…}
And then $\omega+1$ is the set of everything from $0$ to $\omega$; $omega+2$ is the set of everything from $0$ to $\omega+1$, etc.
And, finally, $\omega+\omega$ is the set $\{0,1,2,\dots,\omega,\omega+1,\omega+2,\dots\}$.
 
@AkivaWeinberger which can be identified with $\mathbb{N}\times\{0,1\}$.
 
@AkivaWeinberger I've never understood what "everything from $0$ to $\omega$" means
I should probably head to work
 
$\omega+\omega$ is, then, {{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…{{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…},{{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…,{{},{{}},{{},{{}}‌​},…}},{{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…,{{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…},{{},{{}},{{},{{}}},…,{{},{{}},{{‌​},{{}}},…}}},…}
if I didn't mess up
@0celo7 $\omega\cup\{\omega\}$, or $\{0,1,2,\dots,\omega\}$
 
Most of my mind rejects that notion :P
 
2:57 PM
It's a weird infinite fractal thing made of {s and }s
Also, you can go much higher with this.
 
@AkivaWeinberger but of course $\omega + 1\neq 1+\omega = \omega$.
 
@TobiasKildetoft Oh god
 
These are called "ordinals." And, the set of countable ordinals is another ordinal (an uncountable one, otherwise it would contain itself).
 
I know what ordinals are
 
In fact, that's the uncountable well-ordered set Tobias mentioned earlier, I believe.
Ordered by $\in$.
 
2:59 PM
I don't want to know why it's uncountable
 
Well, it's the set of countable ordinals. If it were countable, it would contain itself, being a countable ordinal.
It's like how the set of finite numbers is infinite.
 
what's the cardinality of the set of all ordinals containing only ordinals of strictly smaller cardinality than themselves
 
@0celo7 Also, using ordinal addition, over the ordinals we have that $1+x$ is continuous but $x+1$ isn't
(Order topology)
 
@AkivaWeinberger what do you mean by continuous?
 
@SamuelYusim Proper class, I believe. Not a set. You want things of the form $\omega_\alpha$.
 
3:05 PM
you mean as a function of $x$?
 
@TobiasKildetoft I just said. Order topology.
Yeah.
 
but defined on what?
set of countable ordinals?
 
$\lim_{x\to\omega}1+x=1+\omega$ but $\lim_{x\to\omega}x+1\ne\omega+1$
 
why is the thing I mentioned not a set, though? It certainly doesn't contain itself
 
@SamuelYusim For one thing, the union of its elements does contains itself.
For another, it's equinumerous to the entirety of the ordinals, which is a proper class.
@TobiasKildetoft Fine, maybe you can't have a function whose domain isn't a set. But it still works if it's defined over any ordinal larger than $\omega$.
 
3:09 PM
sure, I believe the first one.
 
And one of the axioms of ZFC says you can take the union of the elements of a set, I believe.
 
and after some thinking the second one too
yep that's true
 
are we discussing about weird set theory again
 
3:26 PM
How's your health these days? @BalarkaSen
 
@BalarkaSen I have a stupid point-set question that might just be the tube lemma
Never mind
 
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ It's ok.
 
Good, good.
How's mike doing? @BalarkaSen
 
Last talked to him 3 days ago. So no idea.
 
3:32 PM
It's a shame he left
He was the only geometer who is up when I'm working on math
 
I respect his decision: this chat is not a constructive or productive way to spend time on the whole.
in my honest opinion, that is to say
 
Maybe not for him
I once did not come to the chat for a month
I didn't feel like I was more productive or anything
 
No
 
3:36 PM
I did mention it was my opinion... though I do believe many of us think the same
 
Did you figure out the orientation thing yet?
 
Didn't get the time to look at it.
 
I need to read section 6.4 in Hirsch
 
Did JD just call Jim a crack pot?
 
yes.
 
3:39 PM
sigh
There, he humbly apologized :-)
 
I should make some notes on polarization of quadratic forms
@BalarkaSen Riemannian geometry is really quite beautiful
 
I believe that.
 
I'm about 10 pages away from another CW monstrosity in Milnor, just with an infinite-dimensional manifold this time
 
CW complexes are nice objects.
 
I recall you not completely understanding Milnor's argument last time I encountered them in this book
Or at least saying it was highly nontrivial
 
3:54 PM
Not sure what are you referring to, but sure, I didn't study Morse theory so that's quite possible.
 
nontrivial does not imply not nice
 
I'd rather parse it as "I cannot understand it does not mean it's a monstrosity". But then again, I was just referring to CW complexes being a nice class of topological spaces than anything particular out of Milnor which involves CW complexes.
 
Oh, I didn't mean CW complexes are monstrosities
I mean that the proof will be a monstrosity
and it will involve CW complexes and higher homotopy groups and bleh
I'll probably take it on faith
 
@0celo7 Oh, now that I look at it, one doesn't actually need that theorem to conclude oriented degree (or in general intersection no) is htpy invariant.
 
Do GP use it?
 
4:05 PM
I was being silly.
@0celo7 No idea.
 
What do you mean, no idea?
Didn't you read the proof?
 
I didn't look in GP.
I just came up with a proof.
 
Did you prove the extension lemma?
 
If map extends to a manifold which bounds the original domain manifold, then it's got 0 degree? Yes.
 
Yeah, did you use that in your proof of homotopy invariance?
 
4:09 PM
Of course. It's a special case of the extension lemma with the manifold $X \times I$.
 
Yup
 
But that's not new.
Same idea as in mod 2.
 
Do they use the same proof in mod 2?
Ok
 
Well, mod 2 is easier.
 
So I'm not sure where that boundary result actually pops up
Mod 2 depends crucially on the classification of 1-manifolds IIRC
 
4:10 PM
Yes, so does this. But one needs to take care of orientation.
Orientaton no. at boundary of an interval cancel, is the gist. I was confuzzled how this means so does the preimage orientation, but I see now.
 
Right, I think GP has an "observation" somewhere on that
Gotta go
 
I don't really pay attention to G&P on every line. I am an impatient reader.
 
4:31 PM
if $k<N$, what is ($1-k/N)^N$ approximately?
assuming $k,N > 1$
I feel it is $e^{\text{something}}$
We know that $(1-1/N)^N \approx e^{-1}$
 
4:49 PM
hmm. dead chat :)
the answer is $e^{-k}$
 
user61230
I posted an answer that I realize might be wrong, but the reason why is very, very unclear to me.
 
user61230
Could I impose on someone to look it over and see if the reason becomes clearer?
 
Hm, can anyone help me here:
$
H=
\begin{bmatrix}
5 & 6 & -10.2530 & 4.2738 & -14.9394 & -19.2742 \\
-6 & 5 & -0.1954 & 1.2426 & 7.2023 & -8.6299 \\
0 & 0 & 2.2585 & -5.4807 & -10.0623 & 4.4380 \\
0 & 0 & 1.0188 & -0.2584 & -5.9762 & -9.6872 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 4 & 4.9224 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 3
\end{bmatrix}
$
Apparently, the evals here are: $(1 \pm 2i, 3, 4, 5 \pm 6i)$
I can see that 3 and 4 are on the diagonal.
 
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