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2:44 AM
from f(x):R to (-1,1) and let the function defined by g(x)=cos x is it surjective?
I suppose it must be surjective since it maps exactly to the range of a cosine function. How do you guys see this?
 
You probably meant [-1,1]
 
If you want to show something is surjective, you better know what it means to be surjective, in a very technical sense. But your idea is the right one. If the codomain is equal to the range, then the function is surjective.
 
well how can I say that using the range or an example?
 
?
say what?
g is surjective?
 
2:49 AM
yes
 
What does 'surjective' mean?
As I said, you can't avoid this.
 
A function f from A to Bis called onto, or surjective, if and only if every element b∈B there is an element a∈A with f(a) = b. A function f is called a surjection if it is onto
so you mean I say g is surjective using the definition?
 
Yeah, you'll need to use the definition.
 
evening @mike
 
But unless you have a rather unusual definition for cos(x), it's not going to be so easy to find the a for every b.
 
2:55 AM
what if i just use the elements [-1,1] for b?
 
well, of course, you can only use elements in the codomain
But what I mean is
If $b=2\sqrt 2 - \pi^1.001$, then what is $a$?
It's not so easy to answer this question, you can see.
I think I would use the intermediate value theorem.
 
well then How?
by the way, what does the IVT says?
 
If you don't know the intermediate value theorem, then you probably weren't expected to think about the question so hard ;)
but I'll tell you
If $f:I\to \Bbb R$ is continuous, where $I$ is an interval, and if $f(x)=y$ and $f(a)=b$ and $a<x$, then
for every $q$ such that $b<q<y$, there exists a $p$ such that $a<p<x$ and $f(p)=q$.
 
well i could not get that since the message is difficult to read.
 
It's a very technical result.
That's why I said
if you don't know it, you were probably not supposed to think about the question so hard :P
 
3:06 AM
ok so I just use the surjection definition or what?
 
I honestly don't know how to do it without the IVT, besides just saying "everything in the codomain is in the range". Perhaps there is something clever you can do with the exponential function.
The problem is that the usual definitions of 'cos' as a function are obnoxious to work with.
 
if that is the case, I suppose you upload a file or notes on IVT about this particular subject then I will work on it.
 
Hi @SemiC
 
Neman: This reference is pretty good
 
ok thanks.
 
 
5 hours later…
8:10 AM
@MikeMiller No, they do not prove the Morse lemma.
Also they seem to be proving something weaker than density of Morse function. Namely, given a function $f : M \to \Bbb R$, $f_a = f + a_1 x_1 + \cdots a_n x_n$ is Morse for almost every $a = (a_1, \cdots, a_n) \in \Bbb R^n$.
Is that equivalent to density?
 
 
2 hours later…
9:50 AM
0
Q: Computing losing positions in modified Wythoff's game efficiently

sasha Wythoff's game is as follows: there are two players $A$ and $B$ ( $A$ being the first player ) and there are $2$ piles of stones. When his turn a player can remove one or more stones from anyone pile or same number of stones from both the piles. A player unable to make a move loses. Also it is...

 
Ell
10:20 AM
Hi folks
 
10:33 AM
heya
 
Ell
$ x^3 = 1\mod 7 \implies x = 2\mod 7$
but why?
 
@Ell Well, it is not true
 
$1$, $2$, and $4\mod7$ all work
 
Ell
hmm
 
$1^3=1\pmod7\\2^3=8\equiv1\pmod7\\4^3=64\equiv1\pmod7$
 
Ell
10:44 AM
My mark scheme says this:
$x^3 = 1\mod 7 \implies x\times(x\times x) = 1\mod 7 \implies x = 2\mod 7$
and I'm trying to understand why it would say that
the full system of equations is:
$x = 3\mod 5$
$x^3 = 1\mod 7$
 
Does the run time complexity of Linear Programming or non linear programming depend upon the number of number of constraints? If yes does it increase or decrese?
 
10:59 AM
@Ell Yeah, $x$ does not need to be $2\pmod7$. For example, $x=8$ (the number, not modulo anything) satisfies $\begin{cases}\phantom{{}^3}x\equiv 3\pmod5\\x^3\equiv1\pmod7\end{cases}$ and isn't $2\pmod7$.
 
11:29 AM
If I already use [,] and $\langle,\rangle$ for other things and I prefer not to use just (,), what would be a good choice to denote a bilinear form?
The reason I prefer not to use (,) is that there are a lot of other such parenthesis floating around, so it gets a bit too hard to distinguish them
 
11:51 AM
$\beta(,)$
 
That still puts the same number of additional regular parentheses
 
$xBy$ :)
if you are very daring you can use $\cdot$ also
 
Heh, would probably look terrible unfortunately. The thing I that I need to apply this bilinear form to some fairly long expressions
So I was mainly looking for some nice alternative types of brackets
 
If you are writing on paper, you can do large double brackets from mathematica, 〚 〛
kind of hard to see, but the doublestroke version of "[", $\LARGE 〚$
 
Yeah, I need them in LaTeX as I am writing a paper
(I don't think journals accept papers with parts written by hand any longer)
 
12:07 PM
can you read the character that I put in? I'm sure there is a unicode version of it
 
That might be an option, yes
Hmm, it also seems that it exists in some TeX package
 
oh yeah, I totally forgot, if you can think of some type-setting / font thing then there exists a tex package for it :)
 
time to get playing with detexify I guess
quite possibly I should also use | instead of , in the middle to distinguish it better
 
$\llbracket$ $\large \llbracket$
ah you need package stmaryrd
 
awesome
 
 
1 hour later…
1:35 PM
@Balarka In particular, you can choose such an $(a_i)$ arbitrarily small. That's stronger than denseness: it gives some slight control kver the perturbations you need to make.
 
morning chat
 
Can anyone tell me if my question will be deleted by the Community robot within a week now that the question has one downvote? The votes are at -1 and there are comments on the question. Will the comments protect it from the bot?
 
don't know. which question, out of curiousity?
 
-1
Q: Find a polynomial such that this proposed root finding algorithm fails.

Mats GranvikIs this polynomial root finding algorithm below known, and under what conditions for the choice of polynomial coefficients does it find at least one root? Description of the algorithm: Consider the polynomial: $$a_n x^n + a_{n-1} x^{n-1} + \cdots + a_2 x^2 + a_1 x + a_0 = 0$$ Replace $x^n$...

 
@Mats: The community bot only deletes closed questions, I believe.
And in any case doesn't go near questions until a month after posting.
 
1:51 PM
@MikeMiller I once was deleted by the Community bot, with the vote score -1. That other question had no comments.
 
Yes, comments are unrelated to the algoeithm. But either your quesrion was a year old or it was a month old and closed.
 
@MikeMiller ok. And thanks for the up vote whoever it was.
 
2:13 PM
@MikeMiller Ah, interesting.
 
Can anyone tell me what does the person who answered this question mean by saying $a$ cannot be in the image of $g(x)$
 
Right, I was probably not awake when I said that. I have no idea why I thought it was weaker than denseness.
Choosing $a$ to be very small perturbs $f$ to a Morse function. That's precisely denseness, duh.
I'll try out some more exercises from chapter 1 today.
 
Is there exists a multiplicavie analogue of the modulus function

e.g. usual modulus function inolves elements of the form $x+nb$ where n is an integer and b is a constant

is there exists some kind of finite group like $x*b^n$ ?
 
2:29 PM
@Balarka They shouldn't be too hard. You know most of this stuff.
 
for example, we have $\mathbb{Z}/5\mathbb{Z}$ and it involves classes with elements of the form $a+5b$
Is there exists finite sets which has elements of the form $a*b^5$? What are the names of these sets (if any)?
 
2:46 PM
@BalarkaSen There are a few general function space results you should know, all in Hirsch's differential topology book, which I'll say a couple of. 1) $C^\infty(M,N)$ is dense in $C^0(M,N)$. This is also true relatively: if a map is smooth on a closed subset, you can homotope it to be smooth everywhere while fixing the map in the subset. This is also true relative to the boundary of non-closed manifolds.
(This implies that $C^\infty(M,N) \hookrightarrow C^0(M,N)$ is a homotopy equivalence.)
You can also smooth sections of a bundle through sections, or smooth maps from a fiber bundle so that if it's already fiberwise smooth, each $f_t$ is still fiberwise smooth. That sort of thing.
Oh, I think I told you the embedding result already, about denseness in function spaces. To repeat in case I didn't: if $\dim N > 2 \dim M$, then $\text{Emb}(M,N)$ is dense in $C^\infty(M,N)$.
 
OK, (1) is somewhat interesting. Is it hard to prove?
 
Not really. Don't bother, though.
 
@MikeMiller Right, you mentioned this.
 
how does it make sense that the order of $sr$ and $sr^2$ is $2$? These are elements of the dihedral group $D_{6}$ I get that $|r| = 3$ and $|r^2| = 3$ since $r^3 = 1$ and $r^6 = 1$ but $|sr| = 2$ doesn't make sense. $s^2 r^2 = r^2$ not $r^3 = 1$.
 
This should still apply if the codomain is a Frechet manifold, though Hirsch doesn't prove this.
 
2:52 PM
ah nvm I see. $sr^2$ is not $s^2 r^2$ done independently. It's $(sr)^2$ so it's a reflection then rotation twice.
 
3:05 PM
@BalarkaSen I've started reading algebraic geometry, and so far I proved that two affine plane curve intersect only finitely many points. Now I am thinking, if we consider the base field as $\mathbb C$ , then can we say that they intersect transversally or not?
 
A phrase I tend to use in answers lately: "All that remains is X, a task I leave to the interested reader."
translation: the rest of this isn't interesting to me. do it yourself.
 
@Anubhav.K No. $y = x^2$ and $y = -x^2$.
 
I mean upto constant (unit) multiplication
 
I have no idea what up to constant means
 
No idea what you mean.
 
3:08 PM
let me state it
Let $f,g$ be two irreducible polynomial in $C[x,y]$
Then $f(x,y)=g(x,y)=0$ has only finitely many intersection point.
Can we say or give any condition so that they intersect transversally?
 
Yes.
 
How do I prove?
 
For one, note that the zero sets has to be smooth manifolds to actually say transversality.
Once you have that, you just write down the conditions for transversality of smooth manifolds.
 
hmm
 
It's just going to be literally "the intersection only occurs in the smooth locals and the tangent spaces sum to the tangent space of the ambient variety"
 
3:11 PM
That.
 
this makes perfect sense over any field tho I don't know what good it does yoh
 
DO you think Shafarevich is a good text to begin with?
 
I learnt from it.
I think it's good.
 
How far did you read from here?
 
Chapter 2.
 
3:13 PM
I am reading it, I'll come up with doubts
I hope you can help
 
You should start from chapter 1.
 
I am doing that
 
Sure, I'll help whenever I can.
 
Ah, all of my friends abandon topology.
 
:)
 
3:16 PM
I still like topology over algebraic geometry, and only want to study the topological kind of algebraic geometry. But I guess I am not literally your friend.
 
You don't watch TV and eat pizza with me but I was referring to the people in this room.
 
@Anubhav.K In one sense, transversality in algebraic geometry is subtle. The thing is that algebraic varieties can be singular, and one can still ponder on intersection of singular algebraic varieties. In that case making them intersect in "general position" becomes a lot harder, unlike for smooth manifolds where transversality theorem says on can always make smooth submanifolds intersect transversally upto a homotopy. Just sayin'.
By which I remember I still have to learn transversality theorem.
So, back to work...
 
by a small homotopy
if it was by some necessarily large homotopy the result would be a lot less useful
 
Hmm, you're right, but I am not sure if I know what "small homotopy" is yet.
 
what is -1 mod 3?
 
3:25 PM
What could it possibly mean?
 
or.. it must be 2?
because 1+2 == 0
 
if "a mod b = c" is intended as "the least nonnegative integer c such that a-c is divisible by b"
then sure
 
@MikeMiller I don't know, that the homotopy can be chosen to deform the inclusion map to some other map which is arbitrarily close to the inclusion map?
In some appropriate norm on the function space (uniform norm, most likely).
 
How bizarrely convoluted. It just means $f_t$ is close to $f_0$ for all $t$.
 
Whoops, right, I should also care about the intermediates to be arbitrarily close to the original map too. Meh. Otherwise it can go all over the place.
 
3:34 PM
aka, this is anothe denseness result, provided you know the space of maps is locally path-connected.
 
Right, makes sense.
 
@MikeMiller are there multiplicative analogues to a mod b, where there is some function S such that $a S b$ has elements $a*b^n$ n is integer? What are the names of these structures in general?
 
We are saying that the subspace of $C^\infty(M, N)$ consisting of maps $M \to N$ transverse to some submanifold $W$ of $N$ is dense.
 
one also has relative etc versions of this theorem which proves that $C^{\infty,W}(M,N)$ is homotopy equivalent to the original space of smooth maps
could improve this to "transverse to a countable set of submanifolds" if so desired
 
Cute.
 
3:40 PM
useful!
 
I have never thought about all this from the function space POV. Very interesting.
 
@Secret Seems unlikely to be of much use and whence probably not named. Why ping me?
 
I saw algebra in your profile, and the rest are afking, thus figure that I can ask you

what property that makes it differ from the mod that makes it less useful?
 
If you're interested, you should explore its properties yourself to see why it doesn't do very much.
@BalarkaSen: For instance, you can use this to set up a homology theory for which the intersection product is visible at the chain level, or the ability to take fiber products at the chain level.
 
wow, I am curious what the homology theory is.
or rather, how to build a homology theory out of that
 
3:49 PM
It's a tiny bit technical, give me a bit.
 
Sure, thanks for taking the time to type it out.
 
ok, i'll see what I can learn from it
 
Let $P$ be a smooth manifold with corners. Say a geometric chain is a smooth map $\sigma: P \to M$; and two geometric chains are isomorphic of there's a diffeomorphism $P \to P'$ taking $\sigma$ to $\sigma'$. Say a geometric chain is small if $\sigma(P)$ is in the image of a smooth map from a manifold of smaller dimension. Say a geometric chain is negligible if both $[P]$ and $[\partial P]$ are small.
OK, now define $C_*(M)$ to be the $\Bbb Z/2$-vector space generated by isomorphism classes of geometric chains, modulo $\sigma \sim 0$ if $\sigma$ is negligible, and modulo the relation $[\sigma] + [\sigma'] = [\sigma \sqcup \sigma']$.
$P$ is supposed to be compact up there, sorry.
 
Understood. Please go on.
 
The boundary operator $\partial$ makes this into a chain complex. The homology of this chain complex is naturally isomorphic to singular homology. This is not too hard to prove. We needed to quotient out by negligibility or else $H_*(pt)$ would be wrong (and we needed to pass to isomorphism classes lest we not have a set of generators).
this notion of negligibility is old; it's been around since people tried to define singular homology via cubes, and in that setting one needed to add a notion of nondegeneracy for the same reason
we could in addition define the chain complex $C_*^U(M)$ to be the geometric chains transverse to a submanifold $U$. The transversality-denseness result from above more or less straightforwardly implies that $C_*^U(M) \to C_*(M)$ is a chain homotopy equivalence, whence this also defines singular homology.
We thus have a literal intersection product $C_k^U(M) \to C_{k-\dim U}(M)$ given by intersecting with $U$. Passing to homology we get intersection product.
 
4:03 PM
@MikeMiller Interesting. I was wondering what negligibility means.
 
In the simplicial setting, a small chain is automatically zero in homology, iirc.
 
Right.
 
if $M = U \cup V$, pick a function $f$ such that $f|_{U - V} = 0$, $f|_{V - U} = 1$. pick a regular value of $f$; say $1/2$. define $W = f^{-1}(1/2)$. then the mayer-vietoris boundary map is given on the chain level by $C_k^W(M) \to C_{k-1}(U \cap V)$.
similarly making a transversality assumption one can make chain-level fiber products. these are nice tools.
 
@MikeMiller Ah, now I see. This is very fun.
 
Given the Fourier series:

$F(x)=\sin{x}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{5^n} \cos{nx}$

How do I find $a_0$?
 
4:11 PM
what is $a_0$
anyway it's nontrivially more work to work oriented so I won't do that but the construction is nice. i learned this from (and think this is due to) max lipyanskiy, geometric homology.
 
Mhm, ok. This is a nice idea.
 
$a_0=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi f(x) dx$
 
you integrate everything in sight
(or note that you already have a fourier series and it doesn't include a constant term so $a_0 = 0$)
 
Do I integrate everything in $F(x)$?
 
@BalarkaSen this works for Frechet manifold codomain. in particular, because every countable CW complex is homotopy equivalent to a Hilbert manifold, you can define homology for any space you think about that way.
 
4:20 PM
Or is it because $\frac{1}{5^n}$ doesn't contain any x's?
that $a_0=0$
 
presumably if you allow your Hilbert space to be non-separable you can encode the homotopy type of any cw complex
 
I didn't know that every CW complex is homotopy equivalent to a Hilbert manifold.
 
@MikeMiller I'm not sure what to make of what you wrote
 
embed it cell-by-cell and take a regular neighborhood
anyway that's all i've got for you, @BalarkaSen. back to the grindstone and whatnot
 
I was checking an answer in a post from 2013, I saw a mistake in the answer (there was a sec instead of a csc). I edited the answer and waited for the approval of a moderator. I return one hour later and a user with lots of points and I guess some mod privileges edited the answer. That is just hilarious.
 
4:34 PM
@EinsL Any user with over 2000 reputation can edit a post. When you suggest an edit, it goes into a queue that everyone with that reputation can see. What presumably happened is someone opened the queue, saw your edit, and saw further improvements they could make.
 
4:46 PM
I find it funny how the answers i spend the least effort on are the ones which tend to get more upvotes
 
@MikeMiller right, that's what i am doing
 
yeah.
 
@Semiclassical Funny/disheartening/annoying/pleasing.
I've been through all of those.
 
@Semiclassical yesterday I wrote up a trivial "no" in two lines, got 3 votes, today I wrote up about 1 1/2 pages, get 1 vote lol
 
not that it's entirely surprising: If I don't have to spend a lot of effort on it, then 1) it's probably on a problem that's lower level and of wider interest, and 2) I can get it out faster and therefore avoid having someone else post first
 
4:49 PM
@Semiclassical At least it demonstrates the relativity of reputation.
 
my best answers tend to do alright, my good answers tend to do terribly, and my trivial answers tend to attract upvotes
3
 
ugh this reminds me of the answer i spent all day on recently that nobody paid attention to that day
it ended up with three upvotes but still that was a salty day
 
which one is that?
 
7
Q: $S^3\times \Bbb CP^\infty$ is not homotopy equivalent to $\left(S^1\times \Bbb CP^\infty\right)\big/\left(S^1\times \{x_0\}\right)$

iwriteonbananasBoth $S^3\times \Bbb CP^\infty$ and $\left(S^1\times \Bbb CP^\infty\right)\big/\left(S^1\times \{x_0\}\right)$ have cohomology ring isomorphic to $\Bbb Z[a]\otimes \Lambda[b]$ with $|a|=2$ and $|b|=3$, as can be seen from Künneth and cellular cohomology. Thus, the cohomology ring structure can't ...

double salt because the question was highly upvoted
it's like, man, did you like the idea of the question but not want to actually see an answer?
 
4:52 PM
my issue with that answer is that i only upvote questions/answers I understand :p
but then, i wouldn't upvote the question either
 
oh no i don't understand the answer.
 
on the principle that, if i can't understand what's going on, i shouldn't be giving an opinion on it
 
sure, that's fine. it's just annoying to give a detailed, correct answer to a highly upvoted question and have nobody pay attention
 
yeah
another pet peeve: people who keep asking questions in comments without changing their actual question in any meaningful way
 
5:12 PM
@Semi Solved.
 
@MikeMiller The upvotes are people's way of saying "Yeah, I was just about to say that" sometimes
 
5:31 PM
People can also downvote to say that
 
@Akiva So what does refusing to accept an answer mean? ;)
 
Maybe the poster couldn't really understand the answer, and later forgot about it
or maybe the poster wasn't really sure how it answered the question
 
I wonder if you got the reference.
 
That's usually what clarifying comments are for - if a poster isn't quite sure about something, they can always ask further questions.
 
5:55 PM
Hi guys!
I have a silly question.
Why is Riemann sum equal to the definite integral?
Or why is area under a curve equal to the anti-derivative?
 
one is the definition and the other is the fundamental theorem of calculus.
 
Riemann sum is equal to the definite integral by definition?
 
yes
 
hi
what does it mean if a number is congruent to its inverse modulo $n$?
 
6:10 PM
@AbhishekBhatia It's literally the definition of the definite integral. The limit of Riemann sums.
 
@Mike okay, I need to re-read FTC.
also, is there any rigid rule to which theorem is FTC 1 and which is FTC 2?
I found them mixed up in 2 different books.
 
They're more or less the same theorem. I don't know why people bother to label them as two different things.
 
7:01 PM
Hello all.
Is there a word for an expression that has no variables?
Eg: 1+2
 
@user19405892 It means that $x\equiv x^{-1}\pmod n$, or $x^2\equiv1\pmod n$, or $x^2-1$ is a multiple of $n$.
 
7:13 PM
I guess a constant expression.
 
Hello, someone can tell me what the derivative of:
$xy^2+yz^2+xyz+x^2y^2z^2 = 5 $
I need to solve the drivative of $\frac{d^2z}{dy^2}$
Maybe it`s good for the first derivative?
$\frac{dz}{dy}= (2yx+z^2z'+xzz'+2x^2yz^2*z')$
 
 
1 hour later…
8:51 PM
hi
 
9:33 PM
oh hi
 
Hi @Karl.
 
Hello @Balarka.
 
What's up?
 
9:58 PM
morning
 
Ever try to wait out a salesperson, i.e. maintain a conversation until they eventually contradict themselves?
 
Definitely a worthwhile experience.
 
You sound skeptical, well everybody is skeptical at first.
 
10:03 PM
oh my
take the derivative and do it
just do itttt
 
@KarlKronenfeld lol
sounds like the kind of thing you will do, indeed
 
@ForeverMozart You can't do it for him/her?
 
if i am paid only
 
@BalarkaSen a troll's life
 
@BalarkaSen did you learn anything
 
10:27 PM
can I get an answer by clicking this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1797286/…
 
11:02 PM
@NemanNasawa The parenthesis in (-1,1] is almost certainly a typo. It should be [-1,1].
 
11:20 PM
evening chat
 
i just ran a mile and I'm about to die
who wants to join the mile a day club
 
guys
is it alright or generally accepted for someone to write a paper-sized answer to a question that is broad, incredibly complex, or simply inspiring to the answerer?
I've noticed this in a few answers here and there and I'm not sure whether or not it's the accepted norm or if those people are doing something not normally approved of.
Of course, this is a question for opinion, not actual policy.
 
11:36 PM
it's not the norm, but it's fine. sometimes the problem requires a long answer, and other times there may be some insight gained by a long circuitous argument
 
Gausse's Law is $ \phi = \frac{Q}{\epsilon_0} = \oint_{S} \vec{E} \cdot \mathrm{d} \vec{A} $. The surface area of a sphere is $ A = 4 \pi r^2 $. So for a point charge $ \phi = \frac{Q}{\epsilon_0} = \oint_{S} \vec{E} \cdot \mathrm{d} \left(4\pi r^2 \hat{r} \right) $ and $ \phi = \frac{Q}{\epsilon_0} = 4 \pi r^2 \oint_{S} \vec{E} \cdot \mathrm{d} \hat{r} $. But how do I get from Coulomb's law from here?
 
@ForeverMozart ok. thanks
 

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