Anyway, I ranted and raved about grammar earlier today because some dude posted a question on here, and the guy obviously could not write his way out of a paper bag.
Then, Karl said some things, and then deleted them before anybody could see what he wrote.
@MartinSleziak At the time of posting, he'd put up 2 questions within about an hour of each other asking for help with the same thing - though it was less asking for help, and more asking for a solution.
Anyway, if it discourages a user from posting a lot of low-effort questions in a shrot period of time, I'm all for it.
@Mike I took some classes in olympiad math because I was picked to represent my city. Other than that I self-learn random stuff all the time. But I haven't taken anything equivalent to a full university course as such.
@user4140 instead of choosing random stuff, try starting from the beginning of any good first year calculus textbook and systematically working your way through it.
Hi, everybody! I've just created the following Chat Room: Conversas sobre Matemática/Chatting about Mathematics (in Portuguese) Chatting about Mathematics for Portuguese speaking users or users interested in learning Portuguese for Mathematics http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/13749/conversas-sobre-matematica-chatting-about-mathematics-in-portuguese
Ah. My first thought was that it is the ratio of general : maths questions mentioned just before that and that is obviously false. So it has to be something else.
Is there any complex analytic proof of Mellin inversion? I wanted to ask this for a long time as I feel quite uncomfortable with real analysis, especially Fourier. CA is much more natural to me.
Let $(M, g_{ij}$ be a compact Riemannian manifold. Let $f \in C^{\infty}(M)$ (I.e., $f$ is smooth on the manifold) be a given function. Consider the family of equations $\Delta u-4u^{3}+tf=0$ (*)
for each $t \in [0,1]$. And let $I\equiv \{ t \in [0,1]; \text{ (*)}_{t} \text{ admits a smooth solu...
I think I have an elementary proof of the Prime Number Theorem, given the version of the PNT involving the average order of the von Mangoldt function. Should I post it?
It is not exactly rocket science.
Wikipedia: The prime number theorem is equivalent to the statement that the von Mangoldt function Λ(n) has average order 1
You see the average of the rows is $1$ for the first row, and zero for the rest. The von Mangoldt function is in turn the sum: $$\Lambda(k)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{T(n,k)}{n}$$
I renamed the room "Conversas sobre Matemática/Chatting about Mathematics (in Portuguese)" to the shorter title "Da Matemática/Chatting about Mathematics (in Portuguese)" so that "Da Matemática"(On Mathematics) appears in full. Link chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/13749/…
@IanMateus I've created the room "Da Matemática/Chatting about Mathematics (in Portuguese)". Chatting about Mathematics for Portuguese speaking users or users interested in learning Portuguese for Mathematics here chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/13749/…
Let $(M, g_{ij}$ be a compact Riemannian manifold. Let $f \in C^{\infty}(M)$ (I.e., $f$ is smooth on the manifold) be a given function. Consider the family of equations $\Delta u-4u^{3}+tf=0$ (*)
for each $t \in [0,1]$. And let $I\equiv \{ t \in [0,1]; \text{ (*)}_{t} \text{ admits a smooth solu...
@JessyCat Would $u_0 \equiv 0$ do the job? If not, I guess there are some theorems about $\Delta$ on a Riemannian manifold that say there is a smooth solution, but PDEs are not my cup of tea, I know very little about them, sorry.
@Mike A long time ago, I studied mathematics. Since then, I've occasionally read this or that book on topics I didn't study, some of it I have not yet forgotten.
For one thing, I think you appreciate your opportunities more than a lot of the overprivileged undergrads who have had everything handed to them, and waste their time in uni partying and not going to class.
I'd like to meet such amazing people, but in the real life, not on internet. I'd be curious to see how they would cope with my last 3 multiple integrals in terms of fractional part. (I mean those amazing people from MIT, Princeton,Harvard and so on)
@Ethan You can learn to abandon your fears slowly...
@Ethan Gradually do more and more things you cannot do, until you are completely free from OCD.
@Ethan It's alright as long as you are not committing a crime, lol.
@Ethan Well, if you did you would not even apply to X, so it does not matter.
:14417416 The university I went to was ranked 9th in the world by subject mathematics ranking last year on topuniversities.com, but to me the syllabus was crap.
for instance say f(x)=x/(x-1). then f(1/x)=1/(1-x) has maclaurin expansion 1+x+x^2+x^3+... and therefore the original function has the taylor expansion f(x)=1+1/x+1/x^2+... around x=inf
@Ethan here is another cute limit you'd probably like :-) $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n\log(n)}\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \csc\left(\frac{k\pi}{n}\right)$$ (newly created)
@Complexanalysis :-))) Thank you. I really wanna write a book since I have lots of such problems, but ... who would read the book of someone with no background in mathematics :-(?
I have some. Maybe you like this one I created yesterday. Prove that $$\int_0^1\int_0^1\cdots\int_0^1 \log\left(\log\left(\frac{1}{x_1 x_2\cdots x_n}\right)\right) \log\left(\frac{1}{x_1 x_2\cdots x_n}\right)^{s} \ dx_1 \ dx_2\cdots dx_n=\frac{\Gamma'(s+n)}{\Gamma(n)} $$
@Complexanalysis Everything can be done in a very brilliant way (it's possible a dream solution). You don't have to do it now, I only showed you its beauty.