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12:03 AM
Hardy was asked what his greatest contribution to mathematics was, Hardy unhesitatingly replied that it was the discovery of Ramanujan. He called their collaboration "the one romantic incident in my life."
 
$$\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty\dfrac{2014!!k!!}{(2014+k)!!}=$$19023218256023371923631368847325970442681742312843708715614097805154499399124412148484623797491356350146796106278815299475654664112781215748858065666560839990852251985178158097231065072215072718169192503174980244631206369357385520338643050495290112379699368086108853776009782299771679291338466648533562596341181283207016265412171333673442895284601598344190125975789613146204806048962651190430320624991920131673945075423726225110688153775969370164336188144337802769210454205026487998387912544513159629468957634975875068299800294019910
 
@Chris'ssis uh ?
 
$$\approx 0.028952647626948374619236367821601406059466969916858$$
 
@Chris'ssis What's the pretty form ?
 
@Hippalectryon I let you find the pretty form.
 
12:08 AM
@Chris'ssis :/ I'm not good enough I fear :/
I tried nested Gamma functions
Didn't find a way out
@Chris'ssis At least give me a hint
 
No, @Kaj, but see my comments to Pedro above.
 
1:11 AM
Is there some moderator available? Would it be possible to migrate this question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1032924/… to stats.stackexchange.com?
 
1:39 AM
@RobertSmith Not a mod, but I'll vote to migrate.
 
what is the secret for becoming the best pure math writer lol heheheeh heh :/
 
Thank you @Rafflesiaarnoldii. I have been trying to get that question migrated for a while now.
 
@RobertSmith I think you could vote to close->off-topic->belongs to another site, no?
 
Maybe. A couple of months ago I tried to migrate a question and it took 5 minutes here in the chat. I haven't been so lucky this time.
I will wait a bit before trying your suggestion
 
I voted as requested
 
2:01 AM
Hi. Anyone here familiar with Hatcher's Algebraic Topology?
 
looks at mike
 
I'm a bit
heh
 
What's the bare minimum I need to jump to the lemma and proof of generalized Borsuk-Ulam?
 
don't recall the proof, let me look at it
 
2:05 AM
doens't look too demanding. You need to know what singular homology is; that a short exact sequence of chain complex induces a long exact sequence of homology; and be comfy with the double cover $p: S^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n$
 
Thanks. I'm skimming it and backfilling details as I go. I'll make sure I know the ones you mentioned before I proceed.
There was one thing I couldn't find. The last part of Corollary 2B.7; how does having a nullhomotopy yield a contradiction?
 
nullhomotopic maps have degree 0
 
thanks!
 
no prob
 
This is going to be a fun night :)
 
2:17 AM
Good to hear!
 
Ted, where is my muffin?
 
lolwut
 
I want a banana muffin
 
although Ted did promise me cookies at one point
 
by the way, I figured out the Gaussian Prime problem thanks to genomeme @KarlKronenfeld
 
2:23 AM
good
see if you can summarize it in like three sentences for me
 
Ok. In order to have a Gaussian Prime our result must be a 3 mod 4 and we can't represent it as a sum of squares. If our result is a 1 mod 4 and can be represented in the sum of 2 squares, then we don't have a Gaussian Prime. Ex. 3 is a Gaussian Prime because we have a remainder 3 in mod 4 and we can't write 3 as a sum of squares, so there's no (a+bi)(a-bi) combination.
 
yeah, pretty good.
 
WOOHOO
it was the definition from my prof's notes that screwed me up, but last night's session made everything clear
 
2:58 AM
@Rafflesiaarnoldii Thank you for your help! The question has been migrated :-)
 
Is there a sensible way to define genus of manifolds? I mean, you'll certainly require Euler char to do it but how?
 
What's your goal?
 
@MikeMiller Trying to inspect the least genus (not sensible, up until now) manifold $M$ in which the Cayley complex $X_G$ of $G$ embeds. $M$ is probably a 3-manifold, I dunno.
 
gross
 
You think? I trust it makes sense to generalize now that we tried to define genus of groups by genus of the least 2-manifold inside which $Cay(G)$ embeds.
 
3:13 AM
first, no, there's no nice notion of 'genus' or even anything that behaves like it for 3-manifolds (in any sense that I know - you probably should clarify what properties you want genus to have), whose story is much more complicated than surfaces
second I'm not convinced it's a natural question to talk about embeddings of 2-dimensional complexes, unlike embeddings of graphs
 
i'd have to fiddle with the idea before answering any of those two.
 
ok, i gotta run.
 
hello karl.
 
why hello
 
3:16 AM
how's things
 
i haven't been able to keep up with my hobby, which you may recall is murdering people.
 
I do recall
that's a shame.
 
I try my best to help out humanity, but the rate of population growth is just too great for one person to stop.
 
@MikeMiller pewpewpew
 
3:24 AM
@MikeMiller pewpewpepwepwepew
 
how do you feel about turquoise jeep
 
(you're supposed to fire back)
 
I'm a pacifist
 
What's the turquoise jeep?
@MikeMiller You might not want to post that on a place where little kids frequent. :)
 
I was going to delete it the moment you pinged me
 
3:26 AM
@MikeMiller Got bored. Started watching that Taylor Swift video again.
 
and this is indeed what I did
hahah
 
@MikeMiller I need three dobermans.
Then I'd be a cool kid.
 
if you say so
I think you'd probably need a face chiseled of stone too
 
@MikeMiller Check.
@MikeMiller Also, she's the same age as us. Isn't that weird.
 
nah
 
3:28 AM
@MikeMiller Have you ever noticed that our conversations are like 95% exchanges of sharp-tongued wit.
Why is that?
 
I think you start it, and I'm forced to return the ball (perhaps against my will) lest you call me a dweeb
 
lol
Dweeb.
 
no!
 
It's happened. This is desensitization therapy. Now you have no fear in not returning my finely crafted wit--you'r already a dweeb.
@MikeMiller Did you know that boys only want love if it's torture?
 
3:41 AM
Hello friends.
 
hello friend
 
:)
 
Hi pals :D
 
I've a rather silly question if anyone is so inclined to answer.
 
askaway
 
3:47 AM
Does there exist a polynomial in one variable $f(x) \in R[x]$ such that $f$ has infinitely many roots? Clearly, any polynomial over a domain in one variable has finitely many roots, so $R$ must have zero divisors for this to be a question at all. I'm also aware that multivariate polynomials over algebraically closed fields can have infinitely (in fact, uncountably) many zeros. But I couldn't quite answer this one.
I'm reminded of, say, how $x^{2}-1$ has four roots over $\mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z}$. I couldn't concoct a more dramatic example though. I'm wondering if there's an obvious solution one way or another, or if there's something more exotic at play.
 
yes
pick any ring S and any polynomial f(x) in S[x], then adjoin infinitely many formal roots of f to S to create R.
or consider e.g. x^2-1 in the quaternions
 
@anon, interesting, that's a very tidy solution (and a nice example). Thanks for sharing!
 
well, not any f
deg f > 1 is sufficient though, I think.
 
welcome back professor @TedShifrin
 
or you can try ax+b for good choices of a and b
 
3:52 AM
Hi @skull
 
Hello @TedShifrin. Good to see you. :)
 
Hi @AWertheim
 
4:29 AM
rawr
I ate Ted's poptart
 
4:51 AM
I should not say 'this chat is dead' or 'you are up early' anymore as people seem to hate it.
 
burp
 
Hiccup is worse.
 
no you farting in chat is worse
 
At least I did not f*** in chat.
 
hello friends
 
4:57 AM
it's skully
 
5:14 AM
Hi there
 
How could I rewrite this to attract more people? Though I'm quite sure a bounty will be needed anyway

http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1035427/as-m-to-infty-what-is-known-about-the-behaviour-of-the-exponent-of-the-first
 
you may even have to move it to mathoverflow pal
 
5:29 AM
Oh, you think so?
Well indeed it is more of research-related
I think I'll ask on meta about the possibility of migrating it
 
maybe people don't know real analysis
I don't have to study it so :P
 
give it at least one week here first
 
oh yeah? I barely get responses on pdes and I latex like crazy in that subject
 
@usukidoll LOL
@skullpatrol I see, I'll put a bounty then, in 2 days
 
see here an example
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/958928/proving-the-maximum-principle-and-the-continuous-dependence-on-initial-condition
 
5:40 AM
Did you start a bounty?
 
why bother
 
to attract attention
 
-.-
 
put the smallest amount on it
 
5:44 AM
>:c
 
by putting a small bounty on it, the question is moved to the "featured questions" list
 
-.-
 
if you can't get an answer on the featured questions list go to mathoverflow
you have nothing to lose
 
You have nothing to lose if you have lost everything.
 
5:50 AM
I'm gonna post grumpy cat
 
my post of grumpy cat got 4 down votes >8(
 
link
 
it was on meta
 
link plz
 
and then it got 4 up votes, so now it is at zero
 
5:53 AM
linkkkkkkkk
 
0
A: Would you like some hats?

skullpatrolDon't care either way. This year all sites are considered to be participating unless they inform SE otherwise.

:O Gauss even got 2 down votes!
heathens
 
0
Q: Is that Ring a field?

AlkabaryGiven a commutative Ring $R$ of ordered pairs $(x,y)$ of reals $x,y$ with addition and multiplication defined in the following way. $$(x,y) + (u,v) = (x+u,y+v)$$ $$(x,y).(u,v) = (xu-yv,xv + yu)$$ I already showed that $R$ is an integral domain , now i need to show to prove $R$ is a field or no...

Timbuc said in the comments that field is isomorphic to $\Bbb C$ but I cannot find an isomorphism
 
@UserX really? how about $(a,b)\mapsto a+bi$?
 
6:09 AM
@MikeMiller how can we use that if we require that it admits an inverse and we use that fact to prove that it has an inverse?
 
I can't parse that sentence.
 
We're supposed to not know whether or not it has an inverse yet
 
I don't understand how the map I wrote down uses anything about inverses.
 
If we say $(a,b)\mapsto a+bi$ is an isomorphism then there exists $f$ such that $a+bi\stackrel{f}{\mapsto}(a,b)$
 
@MikeMiller Why isn't my question research-related? There might be people continuing A.-E. studies in that direction. Indeed, that is why I ask "what is known"
 
6:12 AM
@VincenzoOliva Look at questions with the tag "research" The tag is mostly used to talk about mathematical research itself, not to ask about questions that you're researching.
Frankly, I don't think the tag should exist at all.
 
not here on MSE
 
@UserX Yeah, so? We can define $f(a+bi)=(a,b)$.
The problem isn't the inverse, it's showing that the maps are homomorphisms.
 
@MikeMiller Fair enough.
 
@MikeMiller I'll think about it. But now I'm late for class so bbl
 
 
4 hours later…
10:01 AM
\o
 
10:26 AM
o/
 
10:50 AM
Hello mein senei @DanielFischer
 
@skullpatrol You mistyped "senex", and that, I must insist, is still an exaggeration.
 
senei senex
Pleas pardon my overly exaggerated typo @DanielFischer :-)
 
We grant your pardon.
 
Upon begging?
 
Upon grovelling.
 
11:09 AM
So now @usukidoll they have deleted my grumpy cat.
 
11:28 AM
Finally, a question I feel completely clue-less about in Abstract Algebra
Waited for this moment!
 
Hold on.
As Phil Collins would say.
 
 
2 hours later…
1:10 PM
cartesian product of a square and an line = a cube (???)
^ explain plz ...
what area of geometry is this...?
...or...what area of mathematics is this...?
 
1:33 PM
hello!!! i have a questions regarding a reference request for partial differential equation
 
r9m
1:46 PM
@TedShifrin I got the hint last night ! :-) thank you ! (we were to look at the composition of fields next ! .. )
@Chris'ssis Good to see you back in chatroom !!! :D
 
Greetings
@r9m :D
Can we finish this one in the spirit of the art, that is one line and nothing more?
$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^1\frac{\log(x)}{x^2-x-1}\text{d}x$$
 
@Chris'ssis what's the answer?
 
@UserX $\displaystyle \frac{\pi^2}{5\sqrt{5}}$
 
2:03 PM
I found a way(one line) but I'm missing something.
 
@UserX That's great! I hope the missing part is not crucial.
 
@Chris'ssis nah it just vanished
Damn
 
Ah, OK.
 
Was is Apostol that introduced integrals befote differentiation?
 
I also strongly recommend this one
$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^1\frac{\log^2(x)}{x^2-x-1}\text{d}x$$
It's important to note a possible connection with other series families by using the simple fact that $$-1-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n x^n (1-x)^n =\frac{1}{x^2-x-1}$$
 
2:21 PM
Actually I'm investing more time to abstract algebra than integrals right now. I just pick the ones I might be able to do fast
 
2:35 PM
I have feeling that this was discussed on meta before: Solution to my question exceeds my knowledge. Does anybody remember a post there with a similar topic? (I did not find it.)
 
@MartinSleziak I remember that being discussed before, but abstractly, iirc. This is the only one I found so far, but I'm almost sure that it has been discussed elsewhere too.
 
I think I even remember something along the lines: It is ok not to accept answer. If you find out that the question is above your level of mathematical maturity, you can get to it later, after you learn the stuff.
 
@MartinSleziak Sounds vaguely familiar.
 
However, it's no big deal, I just thought that adding pointers to the earlier discussion would be useful there. I tried to find such discussion, but I did not succeed.
I am glad that I am not the only person who thinks that there was something like that. (So that I do not have to doubt my own memory.)
 
@BalarkaSen you might like to know this integral connects the polylogarithm, polygamma and gamma function.
 
2:49 PM
@Chris'ssis I see you are back. Please don't leave us again. =)
 
@JasperLoy Thanks. I appreciate your comment. :-)
@BalarkaSen well, more precisely, this one $$\displaystyle \int_{0}^1\frac{\log(x)}{x^2-x-1}\text{d}x$$ and as far as I can see the second one does the same thing but I didn't check the details yet.
 
Hello!!!
Let $(I_a)_{a \in A}$ be a family of ideals in $R$.

$\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{a_{i1}+a_{i2}+ \dots +a_{ij} | a_{ij} \in I_{a_j}\}$

How can we show that $I_a \subset \sum_{a \in A} I_a$ ?
 
Each element $x\in I_a$ can be expressed as the sum with only one summand (namely $x$).
 
Does anybody know from which book is this math.caltech.edu/~2010-11/3term/ma110c/operator_theory3.pdf?
 
However the definition, as written above, seems incomplete to me. I would add that each $a_j$ belongs to A.
@Cortizol Why not ask Google: books.google.com/…
Google says Reed-Simon.
 
3:00 PM
@MartinSleziak Thank you Martin
 
Thank you Google Books :-)
 
@MartinSleziak $x\in I_a \Rightarrow x=ak \Rightarrow x=ak+a_{i2}k_2+\dots +a_{ij}k_j$, where $a_{i2}=\dots =a_{ij}=0$

So, $x \in \sum_{a \in A} I_a$

Is this right? Or have I done something wrong?
 
I don't really understand what you mean.
And it also seem rather complicated to me, I think $I_a\subseteq \sum I_a$ follows immediately from the definition.
The set $\sum I_a$ consists of all finite sums, where summands belong to the ideals $I_a$.
So if I write $x\in I_a$ as a sum having only one element, i.e. $x=x$, I'm done.
 
Darn, nothing in the recorded presentation will help, either.. Can anyone direct me where to look at? I am trying to show that every sylow-2 subgroup of $D_60$ is $D_4$. Obviously it has 8 elements, yet I'm unsure how to go about showing it is non-abelian, etc. Should I try to count the number of sylow-2 subgroups first? It seems like a certain failure
 
Does $I_a$ have some special meaning? (Is it principal ideal generated by $a$?) I thought that they are arbitrary ideals.
I do not understand why you wrote $x=ak$, if $I_a=\langle a \rangle$, that would be an explanation.
But the claim you wrote there holds for arbitrary ideals, not only principal ideals.
BTW here is something similar: proofwiki.org/wiki/Sum_of_Ideals_is_Ideal/Corollary (However, it is for two ideals, not an arbitrary set of ideals.)
 
3:18 PM
@Balarka!
 
Yo
Every 2-sylow of $D_{60}$ is $D_4$? ORLY?
 
Apparently
$D_{60}$ is of order 120
There are few notations
We use the geometric one
 
bah that's false
 
What?
 
3rd sylow implies that $n_2$ divides $3 \cdot 5$
 
3:22 PM
Well, isomorphic to $D_4$
What do you mean by that, and why wouldn't it be so? It's possible.
 
right. i was confuzzled.
 
$15\equiv 1 (mod 2)$ and $15|120$
 
@Studentmath ok, why do you believe that it's D_4?
if so, then there'd be a homomorphism to S_15, right?
is there one?
 
I believe the exercises in my study-book. But other than that, it has 8 elements. I am sure I can show it is non-abelian, just don't know how to.
 
not sure if D_60 embeds in S_15
probably it does
 
3:25 PM
@Balarka why would it imply that?
And it probably does, $S_{15}$ is huge.
Plus I know it is isomorphic to some permutation subgroup of order 120. But yeah, not necesserily subgroup of S_15, but still, likely is.
Eitherway, I am pretty sure it's true - not sure how to go about proving it is true.
 
order of S_15 is 1307674368000. Damn.
 
@Studentmath well if the sylows are D_4, then there are 15 of them and as D_60 act on the 15 sylows then you have the homomorph, right?
i'm rusty.
 
Why would you know there are 15 of them? (you're probably right, I just don't follow (yet))
@UserX huge indeed
@Balarka Okay, we know that sylow-2 subgroup is of order 8, right? We also know there is a sylow-3 subgroup of order 3, and sylow-5 subgroup of order 5.
 
right
 
If a sylow 2-subgroup is abelian, what do we get from that?
Mark it by H, then $H\subseteq N(H)$, I think.
 
3:38 PM
@MartinSleziak
I want to show that if $(I_a)_{a \in A}$ is a family of ideals in $K[x_1, \dots , x_2]$, then $V \left ( \sum_{a \in A} I_a \right )=\cap_{a \in A} V(I_a)$

I tried the following:

$x \in I_a$

$\sum_{a \in A} I_a$ consists of all finite sums, where summands belong to the ideals $I_{a} $.

We could see $x$ as a sum.

So, $x \in \sum_{a \in A} I_a$.

Therefore, $I_a \subset \sum_{a \in A} I_a \Rightarrow V \left ( \sum_{a \in A} I_a \right ) \subset V(I_a)$

Is it right? Or have I done something wrong?
 
@evinda What is $V(I)$?
 
@Balarka if it is Abelian then the statement is false - which I doubt it is. If it's not, all we need to do is find an element of order 4 (denote by a), and then find an element of order 2 in H\<a> and we will know it is $D_4$
 
But I agree with the reasoning that $I_a\subseteq \sum_{a\in A} I_a$.
 
If we can't find one, it is $K$ (the i,j,k,1 group)
 
Perhaps you could write there that it is a sum which has only one summand. (Just to make it clearer.)
Is $V(I)=\{x; (\forall f\in I) f(x)=0\}$?
(But probably the only thing you need is that V reverses inclusion, whatever it is.)
 
3:43 PM
@Studentmath OK, I think it is indeed $D_8$.
 
@Balarka well first we need to show it can't be abelian. I can't figure out how, besides the $N(H)$ thingy, which I have no idea how to use as it will require showing a specific number of sylow-2 subgroups, and then again I have to prove it is non-abelain to find them.. and the circle goes on and on.
 
@MartinSleziak If $S=\{f_a \in K[x_1, \dots , x_n] | a \in A\}$ then the set of roots is $V(S)=\{(a_1, \dots , a_n) \in K^n | f_a(a_1, \dots , a_n )=0, \forall a \in A\}$
 
I see. As I wrote, the write-up seems o.k. to me. (I just made the suggsetion to clarify it at one place.)
 
@MartinSleziak Ok!!! From that does it imply that $I_a \subset \sum_{a \in A} I_a \Rightarrow V \left ( \sum_{a \in A} I_a \right ) \subset \cap_{a \in A} V(I_a)$? Because we shown that $I_a \subset \sum_{a \in A} I_a \Rightarrow V \left ( \sum_{a \in A} I_a \right ) \subset V(I_a)$.
 
@evinda Yes, it does. If you have $V(J)\subseteq V(I_a)$ for each $a\in A$, then also $V(J)\subseteq \bigcap_{a\in A} V(I_a)$.
Btw a TeX-nical note: You can use \bigcap instead \cap when writing about intersection of a system of sets. I.e. $A\cap B$, but $\bigcap_{i\in I} A_i$ (or even $\bigcap\limits_{i\in I} A_i$).
 
3:53 PM
@MartinSleziak Do we have to prove this? If so, how could we do that?
 
@Balarka sigh I am clueless, will go walk the dog, maybe I will think of something then
 
@MikeMiller I am pretty sure there is some sensible way to define hyperbolicity in uncountable groups. An interesting question would be if there is a notion of hyperbolicity in uncoutable that makes $\mathbf{Z}_p$ hyperbolic.
 
I do not think that at this level you are expected to prove this. (But you are certainly expected to know this.)
In any case, the proof should be relatively easy.
You want to prove this: If $B\subseteq A_i$ for each $i\in I$, then $B\subseteq\bigcap_{i\in I} A_i$.
 
I am pretty sure that there is a sense of hyperbolicity attached to $\mathbf{Z}_p$ as the boundary of hyperbolic groups converge to a cantor set, in turn homeomorphic to $\mathbf{Z}_p$ @Mike
 
(For arbitrary sets $B$, $I\ne\emptyset$.)
If you take any $x\in B$, then it belongs to $A_i$ for each $i\in I$. This is precisely the definition of $x\in\bigcap_{i\in I} A_i$.
 
4:04 PM
"An interesting question"... to you, perhaps, @Balarka :)
 
@MikeM :(
 
Why should that be a bad thing? I doubt you're interested in all the questions I am, or would be even after you broadened your horizons a bit more. There's no accounting for taste.
 
I didn't say it's a bad thing, just expressing that I am a bit sad at the fact that nobody thinks my questions are interesting anymore.
 
4:22 PM
eh, tastes differ and all of that
 
Hi everyone, I have a question about three algebraic expressions. Let's say that a<b and both are whole numbers. The first question leads: "is a/b more, less or equal to a/b*a/b".
So it's more, yes. But I wrote this: a/b = a^2/a^b + a/b^2.
Are there any problems with what I wrote ?
 
oh im sorry b¨2
b^2*
a/b = a^2/b^2 + a/b^2
 
that's more sensible, but that expression still doesn't work.
multiply both sides by b^2 to get "ab = a^2+a" which is false in general
 
Hmm.. but if a = 2 and b = 3.
2/3 = 4/9 + 2/9
 
4:27 PM
yes, and ab=a^2+a in that case. in fact, it'll be true whenever b=a+1 since the RHS is a(a+1)
but if a=1 and b=3, it fails
 
Oh.. yes that makes sense.
So if I could advance my answer to the question: "is a/b more, less or equal to a/b*a/b" how could I answer it?
 
well, that question is equivalent to "is a/b-a/b*a/b greater than, equal to, or less than zero"
and i can factor that as a/b*(1-a/b). so all i have to check is the signs of these two factors
 
@r9m this one is down elementarily
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{H_n}{n}\right)^3=\frac{31}{5040}\pi^6-\frac{5}{2}\zeta^2(3)=\frac{93‌​‌​}{16}\zeta(6)-\frac{5}{2}\zeta^2(3)$$
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis yes !! mee too :D (but I had to learn a few combinatorial reduction formulae for Euler Sums first !! :-) ... )
 
@didnotcomeuptosomething: so all you need to check now is whether a/b is positive, negative or zero, and the same for 1-a/b
and we can write that last expression as (b-a)/b, so the sign is easy enough
 
4:31 PM
@r9m :-)
@r9m I only used the old classical stuff, nothing new.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis oo !! Cooool !!! :D
 
@r9m :D
 
r9m
4:53 PM
@Chris'ssis send them this message ! :P
 
@r9m lol, send it to whom? :-)
 
Hi @semi @r9m
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis leave a message in the comment section of your downvoted questions @downvoters + link(message) :P
 
@r9m hahahaha, nice! :-)
 
r9m
@Sawarnik yello :D
 
4:56 PM
heck
 
@MartinSleziak Do you mean the generalized intersection: $\{x : (\forall b \in A) x \in b \}$ ?
 
@r9m yellow!
 
i'm messing up the computation of fundamental groups
 
@BalarkaSen Did you mean hello?
:P
 
sounds easy to do
 
4:59 PM
@MikeMiller but you don't even know the space :P
 
which is why I said sounds, and not is
 
i am trying to compute fundamental group of $\Bbb CP^n$s.
 
oh
sounds hard without some theorems
 
@r9m If I showed my work to these haters, thousands of proofs and questions, most probably they would suffer a heart attack.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis do that and make them suffer of a heart attack then ! =P
 
5:03 PM
Anyway, I have much over 10.000 questions (these are only questions).
Okay, let me compose a new question for these haters, maybe they watching me right now ...
(you haters, serial downvoters, obsessed with me ... wait and see ...)
:D
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_n}{n}\left(\zeta(2015)-\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k^{2015}}\right)$$
@downvoters, look at that and admire it for your lifetime, it's the only thing you can do as regards a question like this one.
Especially created for you.
^^^
:D
 
r9m
 
@Balarka I can easily show the sylow-2 subgroup is not cyclic. That's an epsilon progress..
Not close to showing it's not abelian, or $D_4$, though..
 
@downvoters, do you have doubts if that is solvable? No, you shouldn't have at all! :-))))))))))
3
 
r9m
I wonder if there is anyone actually with the username 'downvoter' :P
 
or 'upvoter' :P
 
5:10 PM
@r9m there is
 
@r9m Well, I don't pretend to be a perfect person, I often make mistakes, sometimes I got upset, annoyed, but I never ever find a pleasure in trying to harm someone!
 
LOL @Mike
 
r9m
@MikeMiller :D haha !! :P
 
he or she hasn't been active in a year and a half, though
 
all that pings are going to him. yikes
 
5:11 PM
@Mike @Balarka apperently he only voted once - and an upvote.
It's quite disappointing considering his name
 
LOL
 
they downvoted once on stackoverflow
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis people who derive pleasure from harming someone ... -_- Ignore them ! .. they are not fit for anything at all ..
6
 
@r9m Very well said.
 
5:13 PM
Even there, he upvoted much more. Our only hope is that he upvoted in order to downvote later on
@Skull on the other hand mr. Upvote downvoted quite a lot
I am sensing a pattern in here
Mike, mind hinting me in the right direction in here? I am throwing fists at all theorems and nothing helps. I wanna show that a sylow-2 subgroup of $D_60$ is (isomorphic to) $D_4$. I managed to simplify it to showing it is non-abelian, and if we take an element of order 4, than $H-<a>$ has an element of order 2. I also managed to show it isn't cyclic (and thus doesn't have an element of order $8$.
I am a bit lost from there..
 
@r9m true.
 
@Studentmath If $k\mid m$, you have an embedding $D_k \hookrightarrow D_m$.
 
@DanielF I guess I could prove it - but how do I go on stating that every sylow-2 subgroup is then of that embedding?
 
@Studentmath You know that all Sylow-$p$ subgroups are conjugate, don't you?
 
Yes. It's enough to prove it for one, isn't it?
sigh
 
5:27 PM
@r9m Is that your new avatar?
 
Thanks @DanielF !
 
r9m
@robjohn nah ,, alucards gonna stay as my avatar for a while now ! :)
 
Does the mean square have any plans to update his avatar for the new year @robjohn?
 
@skullpatrol not after the hats are finished
 
I might break my promise and delete my account at the end of the year.
 
5:33 PM
why?
 
@r9m It's nice to do that in one line without using series $$\displaystyle \int_{0}^1\frac{\log(x)}{x^2-x-1}\text{d}x$$
 
5:50 PM
@robjohn In that answer I don't think I changed my method! I just removed one statement.
@robjohn and added why $C=0$
 
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