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12:00 AM
@AbdulRahman I see. So my answer is yes, it is sufficient. I'll elaborate further
 
@LitheOhm That $\dfrac{x+6}{x+6}=1$.
(Of course, we assume $x\neq -6$ throughout.)
 
@Kevin suppose that we followed the backward trail and we keep going on till we reach P(base). now if I proved P(base) earlier on I'd know that the trail made me land on a value that I proved earlier and hence C (the set that refuts P(n) is empty)
but suppose that I did not prove P(base). Then if I follow the trail back I reach P(base) but then I dont know, maybe P(base) refutes the claim too
in which case we have a minimum value
 
That side then becomes 1/1, minus 12 over x+6 ?
 
@LitheOhm Indeed.
Can you solve for $x$ now?
 
With one fewer X, I believe so.
 
12:02 AM
@AbdulRahman If you can show that ~P(m) -> ~P(m-a) for generic m and a then no such base case exists. It is an infinite regress. Because the proof for m and a goes through for m-a and b, etc etc.
 
You have $$y=1-\frac{12}{x+6}$$
 
@AbdulRahman So I don't think you will ever actually reach a 'base case'
 
@PeterTamaroff It will be kicked back to MO. I think your comment will be attached :-) Good job!
 
@robjohn inb4 migrate war
 
@Kevin but then we know that natural numbers are lower bounded. so we are bound to hit a base case?
 
12:05 AM
@robjohn Oh, that'd be nice. Gerry doesn't sound really friendly. Oh, well...
 
@Peter. You have given up on the whole WOP discussion as a hopeless case? :)
 
user87637
@PeterTamaroff You have a comment on MO? WOW!!!
 
@Jasper Huh?
 
user87637
@PeterTamaroff I don't know, just reading what you and robjohn are saying.
 
@AbdulRahman Well, I think I told you all I could, don't know. I don't like going round the Ferris wheel too many times.
 
12:07 AM
@PeterTamaroff Ah, I didn't see his comments. Unfortunately we cannot see the edit history after migration.
 
"Migration Rejected." Aw, yiss.
 
user87637
@PeterTamaroff How about the Wheel of Samsara? LOL.
 
In retrospect, by saying "dumpster" I'm tacitly calling the question garbage. Tsk, tsk.
 
@AbdulRahman Then there must be a problem with your proof that ~P(m) -> ~P(m-a) for all natural number m and a<m, otherwise ~P(1) -> ~P(1-a) for some a
 
@Peter. but do you see where I am getting off the track? :p
 
12:09 AM
god brilliant.org is addicting
 
user87637
@Alizter What's so great about it?
 
@Jasper It's basically like an online math challenge
 
user87637
@Alizter Ah, isn't it better to study from books?
 
@Jasper And it's good because It's fun
 
@AbdulRahman I apologize if only natural numbers was implied. I didn't catch that part.
 
12:11 AM
@AbdulRahman I have stop reading. What do you need?
 
user87637
@Alizter Books are funner, lol.
 
@Jasper I know but give it a go it's nice
 
@AbdulRahman I just don't see how you can ever find the minimum whne you have proved precisely that no such minimum exists
 
@Kevin. even if ~P(1)->~P(1-a) if P(1) happens to refute the claim then 1 is the minimum element.
 
At first you have to try and find your level, the problems rapidly increase in difficulty
you have Algebra, number theory and combinations questions
 
12:13 AM
@Abdul So is your claim only supposed ot be true for the natural numbers?
 
@Peter. I still have problem digesting why proving a base case is not essential
 
@AbdulRahman "Proving a base case" means induction. Where are you expecting to use induction here?
 
@Kevin. we are only interested in the natural number domain
 
@Jasper Also if books are more fun.. Why aren't you reading? ;)
 
@Peter. suppose that our supposed minimum applies that ~P(m)->~P(m-a) so we contradict that m is the minium. so essentialy the template wants to have us thinking that no such minimum can ever exist. because we proved it for a generic m
 
12:16 AM
@AbdulRahman Suppose we carry out your procedure and we enumerate all the natural numbers for which P(n) is false. We have as a premise "m is the smallest natural number for which P(n) is false"
 
@AbdulRahman You're overthinking things.
If you assume that $C$ is nonempty and arrive to a contradiction, it must be empty. Period.
 
@AbdulRahman If the domain is N then it is a sequence. Thank you - Mr obvious
 
In your case, you're assuming a minimum exists, and finding $m'$ in $C$ smaller than the minimum. This contradicts the very definition of $m$. Thus $C$ cannot be nonempty.
 
@AbdulRahman We get all the way down to P(1). If P(1)is true, then there is STILL another natural number, m-a which is less than m and for which P(m-a) is false so that is a contradiction. If P(1) is false, then we have a number smaller than m such that P(1) is false. Also a contradiction.
@AbdulRahman So we see that the conclusion that C is empty follow regardless of whether or not P(1) is true or false
@AbdulRahman That is, it cannot be that case that both 1 and NOT 1 are the minimum element for which P(n) is false
 
@Peter than how about the following template to prove P(n)
1)Assume C exists which refutes P(n)
2)then there has to be a minimum m in C
3)But then P(m-1)->P(m)

Hence C is non empty
@Peter what do you think of the above
 
12:21 AM
@AbdulRahman What's with $(3)$? You're not telling us all your hypotheses!
In particular, as I said, it looks you're just rediscovering the proof that $$\text{ Well Ordering } \iff \text{ Induction }$$
 
@Peter
in 3 what I am saying is that P(m-1) is true since m is the minimum value in the refutation set. and then we go onto prove that P(m-1)->P(m) hence C is empty and P(n) is true
 
@PeterTamaroff there is an 'm' in 2)
imo, yes that method also works. The contradiction is that P(m) and ~P(m)
 
@AbdulRahman Well, but you're assuming that $P(n)\implies P(n+1)$ are you not?
 
no i prove that
@Peter no i prove that in the 3rd step
 
Yes, that's fine.
 
12:26 AM
@Peter/@Kevin
So what about a statement in which P(base) is false. But P(m)->P(m+1) can be proved. hence there is no starting point to create the domino effect. the above proof technique will let that proof pass through
you can refer to "All horses are the same color problem" for example where P(m)->P(m+1) for m > 2
 
@AbdulRahman And so it should becuase you have already found a contradiction. That is, you assumed that m was the minimum such that P(m) is false
@AbdulRahman And then you found P(base) is also false and base < m
@AbdulRahman Which is a contradiction, so then anything follows!
 
@Kevin. Rembmer that I am arguing against the template. the template does not ask to prove/disprove P(base)
@Kevin. My question is still that if my second template is sufficient to prove P(n)
 
@AbdulRahman I am saying that if you assume that m is the minimum and then find that P(base) is also false that is a contradiction. So of course P(m-1) -> P(m) follows
@AbdulRahman This has no effect on the template. If P(base) is true, the template works. If P(base) is false, it still works.
@AbdulRahman Do you agree or disagree with my last statement?
 
@Kevin how does it work if P(base) is false. because if P(base) is false then the P(n) is false since we have a counter example but since we have been able to show P(m-1)->P(m) the template says P(n) is true. Conflicting results
 
@AbdulRahman Remember that we have already assumed that m is the minimum such that ~P(m)
@AbdulRahman So if P(base) is also false that is a contradiction. From A and ~A any conclusion follows.
@AbdulRahman You have showed that with your assumption it is possible to derive that both P(n) and ~P(n)
@AbdulRahman Thus your assumption must be false
@AbdulRahman This is rather long for main chat, let's step into a separate room perhaps and I can write out the full argument from start to finish
 
12:38 AM
@Chris's sis $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^{2013}}{e^{2\pi n}-1}=\frac{(2013)!\zeta(2014)}{(2\pi)^{2014}}$$
 
@Kevin. its ok. thanks for this!
 
@AbdulRahman No problem
 
@Ethan Cannot one give a general formula for each $m$ in $$\sum_{n\geqslant 1}\frac{n^m}{e^{2\pi n}-1}?$$
How do you get that, by the way?
 
If $m\equiv 1 \text{ mod 4}$, that sum is rational
 
@AbdulRahman I think I understand your confusion a bit better now. It has to do with keeping track of assumptions and 'discharging' them properly. If you need any further help on this let em know and we can discuss it privately.
 
12:41 AM
@Ethan Does that follow from the formula for even $\zeta(2n)$?
 
yes
the factor of pi cancels occuring in zeta making it rational
 
@Kevin sure lets step into a private room
 
@Ethan Again, how do you prove that sum equals that?
 
There are many proofs for more general formula
Some of the ones I have seen use inverse mellin transforms, and the integral representation of the polylogarithm
 
@AbdulRahman Done
 
12:44 AM
@Kevin which room?
 
@AbdulRahman if you go to your inbox you should have an invite
 
@PeterTamaroff The special case $m=1$, math.stackexchange.com/questions/392706/…
 
 
1 hour later…
2:15 AM
What's this now @PeterTamaroff, what's fucked up?
 
@AlecTeal Eh?
 
Did someone take your TV's remote only, and now drives past pressing button's randomly?
Oh I was scrolled WAY up
 
2:28 AM
@AlecTeal That is a DEVILISH idea
 
@KevinDriscoll he did say "fucked up" :P What kind of sick bastard would do that!
 
@AlecTeal Good question....... good question...... probably the same kind of people who would cdn.meme.li/i/ogbip.jpg
 
ASAF?
Wait, that ruins the joke "LOL, so true" @KevinDriscoll
/me desires more to be accepted by the group than learn what ASAF means :P
 
@PeterTamaroff If $k>1$, $k\equiv 1 \text{ mod 4}$, then $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^k}{e^{2\pi n}-1}=\int_{0}^\infty\frac{t^k}{e^{2\pi t}-1}dt$$
Where the rhs is, $$\frac{\zeta(k+1)\Gamma(k+1)}{(2\pi)^{k+1}}$$
 
@AlecTeal Asaf is a user here.
He's on his way to get a PhD on Set Theoretic stuff.
And knows his shit.
 
2:37 AM
Well, that's nice.
 
@AlecTeal Oh, the guys from MO "dumped" a bad question here.
@Ethan Oh.
@Ethan Yes, that I know.
How does one prove the other relation?
 
@PeterTamaroff those swines! What did they do?
 
Complex analysis? Contours, residues and all that wizardry?
 
How dare they come here and do that!
 
@AlecTeal Someone posted a very basic question, then defaced it, and then they migrated the defaced question here.
 
2:40 AM
Was it like an actual defacement (worthy of the Internet) or just some math-specific trolling?
 
@PeterTamaroff yeah thats what most of the proofs I have seen look like, but there could be somthing more elementary out there lol
 
Let's go troll them, post a question like "What's the formula for surface area of a cone, I remember it has $r^3$ in it"
 
@AlecTeal I mean it was a very basic question, and when the OP realized he posted it on a research level site, he just defaced it into some "I'm sorry didn't realize... blahblah". This is the new better looking question.
@AlecTeal Don't.
 
@PeterTamaroff do you know what I hate about Lord Of The Rings.
ENTIRE language for elves, huge plot with many things happening, each faction is well defined, their own style and tongue, awesome story.
Mount fucking Doom.
SERIOUSLY, Mt Doom?
 
lol
dr doom
 
2:50 AM
@Ethan that's not a LOTR character, getcho shit together.
 
I think I watched all the movies in 9th or 10th grade
I woke up one morning on break, and thought I would watch them all
 
Ah, @Ethan, you must be American!
The stories actually come from a set of books from a man who died prior to the movies being made.
 
yeah I know
 
@Ethan, "I woke up in the morning and thought lets watch 8 hours of films today!"
 
yes
 
2:52 AM
In the UK "I woke up, made a cup of tea, bitched about the weather then continued reading my book"
 
(removed)
 
@skullpatrol +1 for the LULZ.
 
:-)
 
@AlecTeal One must wonder where that name came from. Maybe the humans gave it that name?
 
You think in the 1000s of years elves had been exploring Middle Earth that they missed the always-cloudy area with the big orange glowey thing that spews out smoke and Lava?
 
2:56 AM
The first known use of the word 'doom' was probably somewhere in the 1600's during the euro renaissance
 
Good theory @PeterTamaroff
@Ethan they're also fictional. <-- Lord Of The Rings
I don't think so @Ethan hold on a sec, let me check my big book of Latin notes, it's Cicero's so it's got ancient greek in there.
@Ethan ironically I thought Jesus Camp was a fictional documentary.
 
@AlecTeal lol it was a joke
 
No, people that crazy actually exist in America, my heart sank when I found out Fox News wasn't satire.
 
Assuming w/a has its stuff right
 
Yeah I can't find doom in my book, that means it came from somewhere north of europe, where trade not involving the Romans happened.
Probably Germany, because it's present in old English, and it wasn't obtained from Latin.
 
3:00 AM
wooh
 
Also not from Latin, that was probably the greeting of the savages @Ethan
Oh, well done :)
 
i don't know, im just quoting wolframalpha
 
Oh on that note @Ethan Barbarian is a great word.
 
dōm, the Anglo-Saxon word meaning "judgment", "law"
 
It's from the greek barbaros, but the Romans were great helenophiles (Love of greek culture, hence a word derived from greek) so when they imported all the Greek word, Latin got a slightly modified form. Barbari for example is the objective plural.
Greek added a lot to Latin, because Latin only really classified what one could have, for example a sailor or nauta (objective, you would assign a nauta to a boat, but a nautam is is the subjective you would say hi to a nautam).
Greek added philosophy really, like "ethos" which means "character" - something Latin had no concept of.
 
3:08 AM
I want to know why there is a BIG FUCKING SPIKE in the usage of the word 'doom' in like 1640
 
You mean use. Not usage.
I spend most of my life crusading against the stupid words like "signage"
 
Blast @AlecTeal you are correct
 
I have a large quantity of hateage for such an amount of thingage.
 
That one I don't use. 'Signs' is good enough for me
 
@KevinDriscoll if you want to know how to tell, if you spill something you can call it a spillage because you can change the quantity.
With enough pushing you can make two puddles into one bigger puddle!
With signs you can't (melting down and such is across the ambiguous line :P) hence signs.
@KevinDriscoll my biggest hate though is when - particularly Americans - I must say, no offense, add prefixes to words that already have prefixes. For example "disencourage"
Or adding wrong prefixes, "disinstall" -> "uninstall".
 
3:12 AM
@AlecTeal got any other examples? I heavnt heard that one
 
"unactivate"
 
"irregardless"
 
Okay irregardless I have heard
I cant think of any examples myself but I feel like several are just on the tip of my tongue
 
"lots of acreage" (acre = unit of area)
"gas" -> "petrol"
"left-wing" -> "commie"
 
Well that last one has a general opposite usage to how it is in Europe, doesnt it?
 
3:15 AM
"git" -> "terrorist" :P
 
or maybe thats "liberal"
I cant keep political terms straight which one is what in europe
 
No, just America's "left wing" is what everyone else calls right, it just so happens that America's right is REALLY far right.
 
That's certainly true compared to Europe. There are a reasonable number of Asian countries that have right-wings closer to the US
 
@KevinDriscoll abused some more words there.
That's "left-wing" but they are very conservative, which is basically opposed to change.
There's something called the Horseshoe model, it basically shows by example that the extreme left and right are similar in many ways.
 
Ah I see what you mean
 
3:18 AM
If it's racism, probably right, if it's nationalism, probably left.
But in both extremes are similar.
 
See describing nationalism as left-wing is totally opposite to the common usage here
 
Because nationalism is good in small doses, "fascism" is when it goes to far.
 
Personally I tend to not use the right-wing/ left-wing terminology
 
Can anyone help me clarify my understanding of a real analysis question?
 
because it doesn't capture my personal views very well
 
3:20 AM
IIRC natio, which is Latin for "an object that was born" - or more formally "that which has /been/ born" lead to nation. @KevinDriscoll
A nation describes people, nationalism is a shared feeling over a nation, given by how many American speeches say "Americans" not "people" - nationalism is strong.
But again, go down south and it becomes hard to tell between racism and fascism, the horseshoe bends round after all, but going "American made goods FTW!" is good, a bit of nationalism, going "KKK FTW" is fascism.
 
@AlecTeal I'd agree we have a STRONG bent of nationalism in our politics.
 
Actually white supremacy might be racism, if it were "keep the immigrants out" and involved lynch mobs - fascism.
You get the idea right @KevinDriscoll
 
Of course @AlecTeal
 
@KevinDriscoll another interesting thing about the US is how the state is perceived within it. For example a guy called Stanley Milgrim did some famous experiments involving obedience.
 
@AlecTeal Im familiar with the lab coat getting people to turn the pain dial experiments
 
3:25 AM
@KevinDriscoll volunteers were made to believe they were giving an ever increasing electrical shock to another volunteer (was actually pre-recorded), yeah that.
But it was particularly strong in America, this is the classic example used at A-level for cultural bias/consistency in psychological measures.
 
Oh interesting. I didn't know it was stronger in the US.
 
yes there were even an experiment done where a group of people acted like prisoners and another group of people were prison guards. They had to end the experiment early because the effects were out of control.
 
This is because "oh authority, I don't want to be a commie" - which was starting to die down, but has bee replaced (sadly) with "terrorism"
@user60887 that was Zimbardo
 
@user60887 Was called the Stanford prison Experiment
 
ah yeah that guy
 
3:26 AM
That's also a different effect, that's assuming the role one thinks they ought to and how much zeal they take to it, not obedience.
 
well the role of obedience was part of that experiment.
 
@AlecTeal I think its interesting because there are some areas where Americans seem to want to keep government out of their lives and other areas where they want the government to force other people's obedience. I have yet to see a consistent view on this
 
@KevinDriscoll another (sort of in jest but strangely true) is how Americans see (southern) British Accents.
 
How do we see them??
 
Seriously, it's like a super power. I feel like a Sith Lord partrolling Degobah (before it all went to shit)
I dunno, if I had to say something it seems you (as in Americans) feel inferior, your grammar changes, you try to use longer words, but get all muddled and say "that would be implying" instead of "this implies".
 
3:30 AM
@AlecTeal "The reason why is because......"
 
See now you're doing it :P
 
Haha, yeah I'm not sure what the reason for that is
 
@KevinDriscoll I'd love to see you guys responding to a thick Yorkshire accent.
 
I was just about to say that many Americans don't realize that the Northern british accents exist
or english accents I dont know which is correct in this case
 
hi I'm a twink
 
3:36 AM
There are 5 major categories of British Isle accents.
Irish, Scottish, Welsh, northern and southern.
 
do you know what a twink is?
 
Only because of Terminator II
 
??
 
You see @KevinDriscoll, Europe in general is a lot older than America, and after the Romans left things kind of went backwards in every sense (this is why Latin died, the common folk abused words and such to rebel against the order), transport also declined, so for many hundreds of years there was very limited migration within the country.
Nations were defined more geographically really, not by the state though, Scotland's accent starts when it gets very hilly, the north was where the coal mines and steel mines flourished, same with the welsh, the south meanwhile was more agriculture, artisan/craftsmanship and trade.
 
A similar phenomenon happened in China but maybe they have it even 'worse'
 
3:43 AM
Where as America by definition of mass-migration was able to support internal migration, that is why regional differences are not as strong (remember California alone is 20 times the size of the British Isles)
 
Im a troll :D
 
Thanks for sharing!
 
There, Middle Chinese, descended into dozens of mutually unintelligible accents
 
So yeah @KevinDriscoll, China was always ruled by someone, as a result there was a moderate amount of internal movement, based on work, military need and such.
 
@AlecTeal I'm interested in what the path of American language will be over the next few hundred years
 
3:45 AM
I'm not.
 
:-( But I'm not sure if homogenization will continue or it we will see greater regional variation
 
@KevinDriscoll if I had to make a prediction I would say that knowledge of the difference between nouns and something able to do a verb will fall further.
 
lonely im mr. lonely i have nobody
 
I was trying to explain to an American on Skype the difference between a noun and a verb, and something undergoing a verb, it was interesting because it taught me first hand the importance of language and Empiricism (that every idea we have is derived from experience, but with the addition of Kant's conceptual scheme).
 
what do you have against americans¬¬
 
3:47 AM
@AlecTeal I'm not sure I understand precisely what you mean. Do you think that all nouns that don't act as active subjects in a sentence are being neglected or just some specific category?
 
He could not grasp the idea, in the same way some tribes have 50 words for what we would all just call "blue" and only one green, they can tell all the blues apart, we cannot, but they can look at green an a greeny-orange and not tell them apart.
@KevinDriscoll what's the difference between "duplicate" and "replicate"
 
alec you type like a secretary xD
very fast xD
 
You write like my ex did on Facebook.
 
how?
 
@AlecTeal Duplicate is the act of making a copy or a copy of something else, whereas replicate can only take the verb form?
 
3:49 AM
Nice try.
Duplicate is a noun, replicate is a verb.
 
i knew that
 
/me hands @KevinDriscoll a freshly replicated duplicate of something.
 
i already knew that
 
Do you really only use duplicate as a noun?
 
yes
 
3:51 AM
One ought to @KevinDriscoll, but language evolves, if we take the most frequent as the definition then no, it depends on how you define a language.
 
I wasn't aware that duplicate as a verb was once non-standard use
 
why is everybody applying the ice law to me?
 
There was a (wrong) thought that the "du" in duplicate was derived from words like "double", so if you replicated something once, it was called (wrongly again) duplication, because you made but one copy @KevinDriscoll
 
i alredy looked for it in a dictionary and duplicate is a verb too
 
So duplicate became "the process of making 1 copy", then it became "the name for the copy" then the need for it to relate to the number 2 faded.
 
3:53 AM
@AlecTeal So that leaves open the question of the etymology of Duplicate
 
See above.
 
is this a math chat
or an etimology chat
 
@robjohn @anon you guys around?
 
Rarely if ever expressible as a ratio of integers.
 
yeah
 
3:55 AM
hi anon
 
@anon math.stackexchange.com/questions/482659/… self-confessed troll is here now :/
That post was just deleted.
 
lol
are you stalking me?
 
I was the one who deleted it (cast the final vote) after looking at twink's profile after he said hi.
 
why are you stalking me?
and you didnt even say hi
 
not sure if new guy or new incarnation of one of known trolls
 
3:58 AM
new
 
oh well, as long as it doesn't get too out of order
 
i make some questions too
i had another account but i forgot the email of my account
 
indeed, many indulge in humor as a side business to legitimate mathing on the site
 

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