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12:04 AM
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez There is a problem with my answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/181277/…
 
@PeterTamaroff k+1
 
12:17 AM
@PeterTamaroff but yes, the maximal difference is 1/(3^k)...what is the problem?
 
@DavidWheeler Because earlier you said $k-1$ ¬¬
And I was :confus:
 
no, i did not, i said you needed to go "one more digit"
 
@DavidWheeler Sorry, you said $k+1$, true.
 
12:34 AM
Good night guys!
 
user19161
12:54 AM
@JonasTeuwen I am going to sleep now, see you in my dreams!
 
1:14 AM
If matrix A is invertible, then is A^m * A^n=A^(m+n) for m,n∈Z?
 
@Srle what do YOU think?
 
i think it is correct
 
can you see why without loss of generality, you may assume m ≥ n?
 
no :D
 
well let's suppose than m ≥ n
 
1:18 AM
@Srle Do you know what is meant by "without loss of generality"?
 
we can do the other case later
the general idea is you want to prove it for n ≥ 0, then for n < 0.
 
@DavidWheeler Dude. So we agree that if $x$ and $a$ are equal up to $k$, then $|f(x)-f(a)|\leq 3^{-k}$. Now, note that since $f$ is one one, $P_k=\bigcup_{i=1}^k p_i^{-1}(a(i))\subset f^{-1}B(f(a);\epsilon)$ is equivalent to $f(P_k)\subset B$. Thus what we do is choose $k$ large enought so that $3^{-k}<\epsilon$, then every $x\in P_k$ will satisfy $|f(x)-f(a)|<\epsilon$, from where $f(P_k)\subset B$ and $f$ is continuous. Correct?
 
$3^{-(k+1)}$
 
@DavidWheeler $\eqalign{ \sum\limits_{n = k + 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{2}{{{3^n}}}} = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^{ + \infty } {\frac{2}{{{3^n}}}} - \sum\limits_{n = 0}^k {\frac{2}{{{3^n}}}} &\cr = 2\frac{1}{{1 - \frac{1}{3}}} - 2\frac{{{{\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right)}^{k + 1}} - 1}}{{\frac{1}{3} - 1}} &\cr = 3 + 3\left( {{{\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right)}^{k + 1}} - 1} \right) = \frac{1}{{{3^k}}} &\cr}$
¿?¿?
 
yes, that is true.
 
1:26 AM
That is the "extreme" case, right?
The difference can only be smaller.
 
yes, the "worst case scenario", is that one number is "all 2's" afterwards, and the other is "all 0's".
 
Why was it again you need $k+1$, then?
You're allowed to deep sigh
 
if they are the same for k digits, their difference is at most $1/3^{k+1}$
 
Dear Lord. I have just worked out the difference is at most $3^{-k}$, didn't I?
 
oh shoot...now i am getting confused.
 
1:31 AM
@DavidWheeler Hahaha, please look above there!
It is $x(n)-x(a)=2-0$ for each $n\geq k+1$.
It is the "worst case scenario" from $k$ onwards.
 
ok, first digit different (0 digits the same)...possible difference of 1. first digit the same (second digit different), possible difference of 1/3
so if k digits are the same, yes, the max difference is 1/3^k
 
@DavidWheeler ;) Good.
So now we agree taking $k$ such that $3^{-k}<\epsilon$ should do the work?
I think azarael just took that, halved. Because he said choose $N$ so that $$\frac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{n =N}^{ + \infty } {\frac{2}{{{3^n}}}} = \sum\limits_{n = N}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{3^n}}}} < \varepsilon $$
@DavidWheeler Sorry that this talk got so long.... but there was some confusion around.
 
we can pick N even bigger, if we like.
 
@DavidWheeler Yes, yes.
 
all we need to do is find one that works. it's really not that important which one that works it is.
 
1:37 AM
@DavidWheeler OK. Thanks.
 
if you imagine the situation "geometrically", we just need to trap f(x) on the same "level" as f(a), because we know the "pieces" get smaller and smaller on each level.
 
@DavidWheeler Yeah, ;)
 
can you see why we need the product topology and not the full discrete topology?
 
@DavidWheeler If we had the full discrete topology, $f$ would be trivially continuous, wouldn't it?
 
yes, it would
now what is wrong with that?
 
1:45 AM
@DavidWheeler From what point of view?
 
it's not that f would be "bad", but consider f:X→f(X).
 
@DavidWheeler OK.
 
that is a bijection, right?
 
We're still talking about $f$ up there, right?
 
same f, and X is the product of countably many copies of {0,2}
 
1:47 AM
I would write $f^*:X\to f(X)\;/\;f^*(x)=f(x)$ =P
Just to avoid circularity =)
 
f is bijective from X to f(X), since its injective.
 
Yes, yes.
Forgot to answer.
 
now, is the inverse continuous?
 
@DavidWheeler I think by the argument we just made, it is.
I mean
 
ok, what does an "open set" look like in f(X)?
 
1:50 AM
@DavidWheeler Oh, wait. We changed out topological space, right?
Now it is $f(X)$ as a subspace of $[0,1]$?
Or $\Bbb R$, better.
 
$f^{-1}$ is continuous if, given any open set in X, f(X) is open, right?
 
@DavidWheeler Yes.
@DavidWheeler Wait wait.
 
well, technically $(f^{-1})^{-1}(X)$
 
$f^{-1}$ is continuous iff whenever $O\subset \mathcal S$ it follows $f(O)\subset \Pi$ - where $ \mathcal S$ is the subspace topology and $\Pi$ is the product topology.
 
i'm saying, suppose we had the discrete topology on X, can you see what that does to $f^{-1}$?
 
1:54 AM
@BillDubuque: I made it back in, but I didn't do anything other than post to SO and wait.
 
@DavidWheeler But then the open sets would be everywhere! What is your point?
 
for example, we have the "open set" 0.022222222222......
 
@DavidWheeler Yes.
 
which f maps to the single point 1/3.
 
@DavidWheeler Oh. Right.
 
1:56 AM
is 1/3 an open set in the relative topology on the Cantor set?
(hint: every point is the Cantor set is a "cluster point")
aka "a point of accumulation"
which means every epsilon ball around 1/3 contains some other point of the Cantor set.
 
@DavidWheeler Right. It is open.
 
which means that (1/3- ε,1/3+ε) intersect C can't possibly be {1/3}
so, no, the image of a single point in X, is NOT open.
the discrete topology has "too many open sets" to make $f^{-1}$ continuous.
so even though f is a continuous bijection, it's not a homeomorphism, if X has the discrete topology.
 
@robjohn I raised a flag several hours ago asking for this question of mine to be made CW. The flag has not been either accepted or declined. Do you know what the holdup might be?
 
so the million dollar question is: if we take the product topology, is $f^{-1}$ continuous then?
 
@MarkDominus I've been trying to get fully reconnected for a while. I just got back. I will look.
 
2:05 AM
Thanks very much.
 
@MarkDominus Could you proofread this, please?
@MarkDominus It is topology, so I guess it will be routine for you.
 
@PeterTamaroff Looking.
 
@robjohn Do you know how to set up tables in $\LaTeX$? I have a problem in one of my answers.
 
@PeterTamaroff Ha.
 
@MarkDominus bites nails
 
2:09 AM
@MarkDominus Done
@PeterTamaroff where?
 
@robjohn Many thanks.
 
@PeterTamaroff Post a screenshot, it looks fine to me
Other than a missing \hline at the top
 
@PeterTamaroff Correct me if I am crazy, but is it not the case that (a) a product of discrete spaces is discrete, and (b) every function on a discrete space is continuous?
 
@PeterTamaroff what needs changing?
 
2:13 AM
@MarkDominus I don't have that as a theorem. GAWD.
 
I am not sure about (a).
 
The lines go all the way across for me
 
@MarkDominus i do not believe that the product topology on an infinite number of discrete factors is, in fact, discrete.
 
Okay, no, because otherwise the Cantor set would be a discrete space, which it isn't, as per exactly the example you are proving.
 
2:14 AM
@MarkDominus "Yes. In fact, a product of $A$ discrete spaces, with the product topology, each with more than one point is discrete if and only if $A$ is finite. – David Mitra"
 
Good!
 
"Yes. Finite products of discrete spaces are again discrete. Both X and Y have as a base the singleton sets, and the product topology on X×Y will have as a base, the product of singleton sets, meaning every point is open and closed, and hence the topology on X×Y is discrete.

An infinite product of discrete spaces need not be discrete however."
 
Is &c supposed to be etc.
 
which is exactly the point that this example brings into sharp relief
 
@HenryT.Horton Is etc. supposed to mean &c?
@DavidWheeler =)
 
2:15 AM
 
@robjohn What do you use to get such neat screenshots?
 
That's what I see. Perhaps it is a browser issue.
 
@HenryT.Horton "et" in "etc." is Latin for "and". "&" is a long-standing abbreviation for "and". The "c" stands for "cetera" = "the rest".
 
@HenryT.Horton You just got schooled by a guy as important as Jigglypuff.
 
@PeterTamaroff I just take a screenshot (command-shift-3 on the Mac)
 
2:17 AM
Yeah but who the hell uses &c for etc
 
@PeterTamaroff the usual abberviation is "etc." short for "et cetera", Latin for "and so forth" (literally "and the other things").
 
Just looks unprofessional. -1.
 
@HenryT.Horton i see it all the time.
 
@HenryT.Horton Me. And when I drink, I ask for a Martinus. I ask for Martini when I really want to get wasted,
 
have you ever said: "what a bunch of ani!"?
 
2:19 AM
@MarkDominus Do you think the proof is OK?
@DavidWheeler I talk in spanish most of the time, so no. The Martini thing is an exception.
 
>.< 7 foot joke?
 
@PeterTamaroff In the next-to-last paragraph, do you really mean "for $n≥ k+1$"?
@HenryT.Horton In fact, the "&" symbol is itself a variation on the letters "et".
 
@MarkDominus Didn't I write that?
 
I gotta log off for a bit. My wife needs to charge her phone and I only have one iPhone cable.
 
@PeterTamaroff It's okay. I just had to think about it.
I did not see any problems in the proof.
 
2:23 AM
@MarkDominus OK, cool.
I am reading about identification topologies now.
 
@PeterTamaroff Is that the same as quotient spaces?
 
@MarkDominus Yes. Actually "quotient topologies" =P
 
"The phrase et cetera ("and so forth"), usually written as etc. can be abbreviated &c. representing the combination et + c(etera)" -Wikipedia
 
You can see the older "et"-like forms in the second and third ampersands in the middle row.
And a sort of intermediate form in the leftmost of the middle row.
 
2:25 AM
@MarkDominus OMG I will learn to write the "Hoefler Text Italic."
 
I know Hoefler. He was a year behind me in high school.
 
from what i've read, the "Hoefler Text Italic" is actually a fairly "old" form
 
@MarkDominus Hehehe, look at that.
 
Yes, Hoefler is very witty.
 
@DavidWheeler Would you like to discuss a little about quotient spaces?
 
2:27 AM
We were not close friends, but we knew one another and were on good terms. I have been to his typography studio.
 
I'm trying to grokke the construction.
 
when i scribble it, my own handwriting looks like the Palatino
 
I use a form a lot like the Palatino one myself.
 
what's to grok? you have a quotient map. you want it to be continuous.
 
@DavidWheeler BRB.
 
2:35 AM
the simplest example is the circle: start with the real line, and define the following equivalence: x~ y iff x-y is an integer.
 
I would have said that the simplest example is the circle: start with $[0,1]$ and define the smallest equivalence that contains 0~1.
 
same thing really, i just have "larger equivalence classes", but there's an obvious 1-1 correspondence between the two
and it's the same quotient map $q: x \mapsto e^{2\pi i x}$
the counter-intuitive thing is that we don't want images of open sets, we want sets whose pre-images are open.
 
3:06 AM
@DavidWheeler I'm back.
Could you bear with me for a while?
It's not that I'm confused about something, don't worry! =)
@MarkDominus Are you there?
 
here
 
@MarkDominus Oh, good.
So. The author defines an identification $p:(E,\mathfrak I)\to (B,\mathfrak I')$ as a continuous function such that $p^{-1}(O)$ open in $E$ means $O$ open in $B$. Equivalently from Munkres "$U\subseteq \mathfrak I\iff p^{-1}(U) \in \mathfrak I'$.
 
Okay.
 
@MarkDominus He then proves a little lemma which says that if $p:E\to B$ is an identification and $G:E\to Y$ is continuous, and $p(x)=p(x')\Rightarrow G(x)=G(x')$, we can set up a continuous function $g:B\to Y$ by $g(b)=G(x)$, with $x\in p^{-1}(\{b\})$.
 
Sorry, I don't think I'm going to be able to help. It's too late at night here.
 
3:19 AM
@MarkDominus It's OK.
Laters.
 
Yes.
 
@HenryT.Horton
 
I can't help you until Tuesday night
 
@HenryT.Horton You're working?
 
I should be
 
3:22 AM
@HenryT.Horton OK. Best wishes.
 
I'll need them :'(
 
@HenryT.Horton Why?
 
I have a qualifying exam Tuesday
 
@HenryT.Horton Quialifying for what?
 
Anal
I just did a practice one and answered a passing amount of questions in 25% of the time limit though, and I seem to know how to do all the questions almost right away
 
3:26 AM
@HenryT.Horton I mean, Grad studies?
 
Yes a Ph.D qualifying exam
 
@HenryT.Horton Well, that is awesome, isn't it?
 
I just noticed that Martin put the homework tag on the mysteriously-revived "should we have a homework tag" meta question. (meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/621/… awesome.
 
@mixedmath LOL
@mixedmath Do you know about identification maps?
 
3:29 AM
identification maps?
 
@mixedmath Quotient maps, quotient topologies.
 
yes, I know some things about them, I guess. But I'm quick to say that topology has always been one of my weaker subjects, so if this is technical at all, I'll not be helpful.
 
3:43 AM
@PeterTamaroff I can help you with quotient topologies.
@mixedmath Can I ask a quick/basic question on simplices?
 
@mixedmath Some problem there? Since the thread was already bumped, I don't think that adding correct tags does any harm.
 
@MartinSleziak No - I thought it was excellent. It really pleased my dry humour side.
 
Ok then. It sounded a bit sarcastic, so I asked.
 
Let $K$ be a simplicial complex, and $\sigma, \tau$ distinct simplixes of $K$. Why is it if $x \in \sigma \cap \tau$, then $x \in \textrm{int} s \cap \textrm{int} t$ for some faces $t$ and $s$?
 
@MartinSleziak ah - I was composing my comment to Makoto at the time, and perhaps it rubbed a bit on me when I was typing in the chat, too. I'm sorry about that.
 
3:47 AM
No problem. It was just my interpretation, obviously not a correct one.
 
@PeterTamaroff the fact that you want your map to be constant on the fibers guarantees well-definiteness
@PeterTamaroff It's like the topological requirement that you quotient out by a normal subgroup/ideal
 
@BenjaLim As you tell me that on the one hand they are distinct, but on the other hand they have non-trivial intersection, I will assume that distinct means they have no common vertex and that they are defined by a set of vertices. So if a point is in both, but not a vertex, then it must be on faces.
 
@mixedmath I copied out the words from elements of algebraic topology.
 
that's fine, my answer stands
I was just explaining the definition I was assuming
 
hmmm now I realised I don't know what distinct means....
 
3:49 AM
if that's not the definition of a simplex to you, then we have a problem
aha - well, progress
one bit at a time
;p
 
I have the definition of a simplex
 
I wouldn't be surprised if simplices came from a set of vertices. That's how Hatcher does it too.
 
yes.
@mixedmath So in the case of 2-simplexes a.k.a. triangles
you say two triangles are distinct if
 
let's say that we are talking about the vertices [a,b,c,d], strictly speaking a 3-simplex (tetrahedron), and I wanted to talk about distinct 1-simplices (lines)
then, for example, [a,b] and [c,d] are distinct simplices
as they don't share a vertex
 
ah ok.
now what about the 2-simplices (the triangles)?
I could not have [a,b,c] and [b,c,d] being distinct because they share the vertex $b$ yes?
 
3:54 AM
that's right
 
thanks.
I am curious why munkres did not define what distinct simplices meant earlier.
 
Is his definition of a simplex a set of vertices, like I'm using?
 
Definition:
Let $\{a_0,\ldots,a_n\}$ be a geometrically independent set in euclidean space. We define the $n$ - simplex $\sigma$
spanned by $a_0,\ldots, a_n$ to be the set of all points $x$ such that
$x = \sum_{i=0}^n t_i a_i$ where $\sum t_i = 1$
and $t_i \geq 0$ for all $i$.
 
close enough, I suppose
 
Ok now that we have the definitions sorted out
why if a point is in both $\sigma $ and $\tau$
this forces it to be on a face?
 
3:58 AM
oh, my previous answer still stands.
 
Yes.
But I don't understand why if it is in the intersection
and not a vertex
then it is on a face like you said.
 
Terrible electrical storm here. Power went off three times already.
 
not a cloud in the sky :D
 
oh, I missed that you responded
I suspect that if you look up what a simplicial complex is, it will say that the intersection of any two simplices is a face of both simplices, too
 
@BenjaLim I did not see your pings. Thanks.
54 mins ago, by Peter Tamaroff
So. The author defines an identification $p:(E,\mathfrak I)\to (B,\mathfrak I')$ as a continuous function such that $p^{-1}(O)$ open in $E$ means $O$ open in $B$. Equivalently from Munkres "$U\subseteq \mathfrak I\iff p^{-1}(U) \in \mathfrak I'$.
53 mins ago, by Peter Tamaroff
@MarkDominus He then proves a little lemma which says that if $p:E\to B$ is an identification and $G:E\to Y$ is continuous, and $p(x)=p(x')\Rightarrow G(x)=G(x')$, we can set up a continuous function $g:B\to Y$ by $g(b)=G(x)$, with $x\in p^{-1}(\{b\})$.
@BenjaLim
 
4:15 AM
@BenjaLim In addition to seeing how simplicial complex is defined, I suddenly wonder also how you define a "face." Some authors say a face is a proper subset of the vertices, and others say any subset, so that a face might be the entire simplex
@BenjaLim I did not learn from Munkres, nor do I own it, but since I'm about to run away and you don't seem to be here, I'll say a few closing remarks. The advantage of having any subset of vertices be a simplex is that then every interior point of a simplex is in the interior of a unique face. And this is really useful in showing certain things about simplicial maps.
Anyhow - good night all
 
@mixedmath Night.
@BenjaLim Could you solve your problem?
 
@mixedmath Sorry I was typing an answer on the main page
 
4:37 AM
@BenjaLim You there?
 
4:47 AM
@PeterTamaroff Sorry I was busy with AT stuff.
 
@BenjaLim No problem.-
 
Look at the main page :D
 
@BenjaLim I see your new question.
 
@PeterTamaroff Simplicial complexes .....
 
@BenjaLim Yes?
@BenjaLim Is that what you're struggling with?=
 
5:04 AM
yes
 
@BenjaLim Are you busy now?
@AlexBecker Hello.
 
@PeterTamaroff Hey.
 
@Matt Hello
@BenjaLim Did I tell you I met Cedric Villani?
And Mariano, too.
 
no
 
5:12 AM
@PeterTamaroff When did that happen?
 
Or why don't I call them Andre and Fred?
Hi Peter.
 
@AlexBecker On Friday.
 
This sucks so much. I missed t-bear last night.
 
@Matt I missed lunch with Cedric Villani!!!
 
@PeterTamaroff Never heard of, I'm sorry.
 
5:14 AM
@PeterTamaroff I am very busy with AT.
 
@Matt Field Medallist. =P
 
A lot of stuff is confusing as hell.
@PeterTamaroff Well I've met Paul Baum :D
@PeterTamaroff As in the paul baum in :en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baum%E2%80%93Connes_conjecture
 
@BenjaLim OK. Good luck.
 
@PeterTamaroff Pshaw. We've got two of those in the department :P
 
@PeterTamaroff I'd rather have lunch with t-bear than with a Field's medalist.
 
5:16 AM
@AlexBecker Hahaha well, I'm a newbie in the math world.
@Matt I'm sure you would.
 
@PeterTamaroff And I met Endre Szemerédi the Abel prize winner of this year.
 
@PeterTamaroff : )
 
@Matt I also missed lunch with Mariano. =/
@FortuonPaendrag A recent recipient!
@AlexBecker Wanna talk a little about Quotient Topologies?
 
@PeterTamaroff Sure!
 
@PeterTamaroff I wish I could spend time talking to you. But I really have to finish this AT stuff.
 
5:19 AM
@PeterTamaroff Well well. : )
 
I really should be working on my paper, but a distraction might be good too.
 
@AlexBecker Well, I read about them, I think yesterday,
I ended up with a really badass diagram.
But that's not the point.
The whole point of the chapter seemed to start with a function $f:X\to Y$ and define two functions $\pi_f:X\to X/\sim_f$ and $f^*:X/\sim_f\to Y$ such that $f=f^* \pi_f$ be continuous.
Here $x\sim_f x' \iff f(x)=f(x')$
 
@PeterTamaroff Can you put one vote on this question? I voted on all his questions already. It's for numerology play.
 
@Matt I happened to have that upvoted already ;)
 
@PeterTamaroff Oooh, : ) Too bad. What about any of his other questions?
He'll be 40, you know : )
 
5:23 AM
@Matt He'll turn 40?
 
@PeterTamaroff Yes, 40k : )
 
@Matt Dunnnnnn
 
What? Can you undo?
It's one too many now.
 
@Matt Oh, you want $40k$ exactly?
 
Yes! Of course : )
 
5:25 AM
Well, upvote him once. Downvote him 3 times =P
 
I don't do downvoting.
 
Accept one of his questions?
@AlexBecker
 
Why can you not just +1 one of the questions rather than two?
 
3 mins ago, by Peter Tamaroff
The whole point of the chapter seemed to start with a function $f:X\to Y$ and define two functions $\pi_f:X\to X/\sim_f$ and $f^*:X/\sim_f\to Y$ such that $f=f^* \pi_f$ be continuous.
@Matt Oh, duh!
 
With +5 it's 40k.
@PeterTamaroff W0000t!
You're awesome : )
 
5:27 AM
@Matt Hahaha, done.
 
Let's hope it'll last for a while.
 
@AlexBecker
 
@PeterTamaroff What's your question?
 
@AlexBecker OK, sorry. Let me rollback.
 
user image
3
 
5:28 AM
So, what we do is take a function $f:(X,\mathfrak I) \to (Y,\mathscr S)$. Any function.
 
Ok, my duty here is done. See you later! : )
 
We can keep tweaking it all night, @Matt :).
 
@Matt Bye
 
Then define $\sim_f\subset X^2$ by $x\sim_f x'\iff f(x)=f(x')$
Then we define $\pi_f:X\to X/\sim_f$ by $x\mapsto \hat x$, where $\hat x$ is the corresponding equivalence class.
 
5:30 AM
Yes, this is fairly standard.
 
@AlexBecker Wait, wait, give me a while.
 
Okay :)
 
Now, we give $X/\sim_f$ the identification topology determined by $\pi_f$.
Then $\pi_f$ is an identification, and $\pi_f(x)=\pi_f(x')\iff f(x)=f(x')$
 
I'm leaning towards making this an . Opinions?
 
Now by a previous lemma, $f$ "induces" a continuous function $f^*:X/\sim_f \to Y$ such that $f=f^*\pi_f$
 
5:33 AM
@J.M. I think it's a good idea.
 
The lemma is that if $p:E\to B$ is an identification and $G:E\to Y$ is continuous, and $p(x)=p(x')\Rightarrow G(x)=G(x')$, we can define a continuous $g:B\to Y$ by $g(b)=G(x)$ whenever $x\in p^{-1}(\{b\})$.
We say that $G$ induces the continuous function $g$.
Now, this is the last part.
 
@J.M. Thirded !
 
@AlexBecker I was trying to pick between that and this, but the other one is the only thing that has Faulhaber's formula written explicitly...
 
$f^*$ is one one (follows almost immediately by the more explicit defintion of $f^*$ which could be "$f^*(\hat x)=f(\alpha)$ for any $\alpha \in \hat x$."
Now:
@AlexBecker Hope I'm not boring you.
 
@J.M. I think your choice is correct.
@PeterTamaroff You're fine. I'm working while you type.
 
5:38 AM
Since $f^*$ is continuous, we have that $f^*{}^{-1}(\mathscr S)\subset \Bbb I$, where $\mathscr S$ is the topology of $Y$ and $\mathbb I$ is the identification topology on $X/\sim_f$.
Or equivalently, since $f^*$ is one-one, we have $\mathscr S \subset f^*(\mathbb I)$
Then the author says: "Now, if $\mathscr S'$ were another topology on $Y$ such that $f$ were continuous, we would again have $\mathscr S'\subset f^*(\mathbb I)$ so that $\mathbb I$ is the weakest topology carried over to $Y$ by $f^*$ such that $f$ is continuous."
@AlexBecker
 
Is this confusing you?
 
@AlexBecker I don't know where he wants to get to.
It seems the idea of all this is supplying with a technique to obtain from any function $f:X\to Y$ a continuous function $f:(X,\mathfrak I)\to (Y,\mathscr S)$.
 
@PeterTamaroff I'm not sure what you mean.
@PeterTamaroff Ah. I think he's trying to motivate the precise definition of the quotient topology.
 
@AlexBecker Yes, something like that.
 
What he's said there essentially boils down to saying the quotient topology is the weakest topology such that you can always obtain $f:(X,\mathfrak I)\to (Y,\mathscr S)$.
Essentially, the construction of the quotient space is categorically "correct".
 
5:47 AM
@AlexBecker He gives this construction and then he gives three example: attaching a space to another, shrinking a subset to a point, and covering the circle with the real line.
@AlexBecker What is the motivation behind the identification topology?
 
Think of it in terms of the function $f$.
Let's say $f$ is equal to $0$ everywhere.
 
@AlexBecker OK
 
This is a perfectly valid function on any space, but you don't need the whole space really.
Thinking of it as a function from $(\mathbb R^5\coprod S^{87})\times \mathbb C^\times$, for example, is retaining a lot of extra information you don't need.
 
@AlexBecker LOL; what? This is an Introductory Topology book.
 
In order to minimize the amount of information you have to keep track of, you want to treat $f$ as a function from the "smallest/simplest" possible space.
 
5:52 AM
@AlexBecker OK.
 
So in this case, we can treat $f$ as essentially a function defined on a single point. This is a whole lot simpler than $(\mathbb R^5\coprod S^{87})\times \mathbb C^\times$.
 
@AlexBecker But what is that thing!?!??
 
All that stuff about defining $f^*$, etc. was to show that $f$ is essentially defined on the quotient space $X/\sim_f$.
 
@AlexBecker OK.
 
@PeterTamaroff Something hopelessly convoluted. Don't worry about it. It was just an example of a space you don't want to work with.
 
5:55 AM
@AlexBecker Yes, I got that part. We identify all the $f(x)=f(x')$ with a single point. When I sa "identify" I mean it in the most mundane term, like "put them all in the same bag".
 
@PeterTamaroff That's a good way to think about it.
 
@AlexBecker The good thing is that $f^{-1}$ will still behave like the initial $f^{-1}$, because of how we set things up.
 
Indeed.
 
So that this new $f$ will be in some sense the most similar continuous function to the original $f$
That's I think, the point he's making with $\mathbb I$ being the weakest topology.
 

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