@SteveTaylor Your Psalm 29:9 question is interesting, but it isn't an "authorial intent" question, and I've removed the tag -- but not your wording! Could you be persuaded to re-cast that as "Which of these images is conveyed by the Hebrew?" or some such? That is, we can't answer this by peering into the mind of the "author", but we can address the language issue that gives rise to the two translations. Any thoughts?

@Dɑvïd Fair enough, I've been persuaded! I suppose I typically frame every hermeneutical question in my own mind as "what did the author intend by X", so that's why I originally put it that way. I'm not presently leaning either way on the question, it was more of a curiosity which I thought would be good to explore.