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3:05 AM
and a new answer to an old question by myself as well:
A: What does ἐκ μέρους mean in 1 Corinthians 13:9-10?

ThaddeusBGrammatically, 1 Corinthians 13:9 is ambiguous enough that Paul could be referring to the parts of the body of Christ ("individually"). However, the context makes it clear that is not the case and that he has the more common meaning of "partially" in mind. Paul's argument In chapter 12 of 1 Co...

3 hours later…
6:27 AM
@ThaddeusB Interesting. That’s pretty tied up with one’s understanding of this one:
Q: What does Paul mean by 'Completeness' in 1 Corinthians 13:8-10?

aceinthehole1 Corinthians 13:8-10 Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears. This ver...

("This verse is often used as a basis for cessationism...”....really?)
But you don’t see this as eschatological at all?
> The moment when the perfect if not referring to an eschatological event (the return of Christ), but rather the spiritual maturity of the believer
^^ Is that a typo, supposed to be “is not referring”?
Anyway, has my +1 even if I’m not sure I agree.
6:50 AM
Q: In 1 Cor 13:10, What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

e.s. kohenQuestion: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "the perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" comes, the partial will be done away. The Exegetical Approach: Wh...

^^ Is that different? I just closed a third, but there seemed to be two options. Can’t recall if we had this discussion when ^^ was asked.
7:47 AM
@Susan Unfortunately, yes. I cringe when I hear it, but it is an often used "basis".
8:01 AM
A: What is the basis for Cessationism?

aceintheholeI do not think you can have discussion about cessationism without mentioning 1 Corinthians 13: 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 8 Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know ...

(Citing as support for the notion that this is the biblical basis those who disagree with that conclusion, which seems to be a theme.)
7 hours later…
2:41 PM
@Susan My first impression was that it is eschatological, but after digging into it I don't think it is. One of the main themes of 1 Corinthians is spiritual maturity and the immediate context both before and after v10 is also about maturity so I now think it makes more sense to read it in light of that theme rather than eschatologically. That said, I don't think it impacts the original question - "perfection"/"completeness" is better contrasted to "partially" than "individually" regardless
I'll probably answer one of the 13:10 questions to more fully justify the maturity interpretation. :)
@Susan @Caleb @Dan FYI, to whomever reviewed my flag on this post it was accurate when I made it, but the OP fixed his post after that.
@ThaddeusB Well that was me and I had not reviewed the edit history (or deleted comment). I might have marked it differently if I had, but it really doesn't matter. The flag was no-action either way and it's no mark against you. You have no way to cancel a flag anyway after it's sent, so a mod has to clear it.
3:11 PM
@Caleb Yep, I know. Just an FYI, not a complaint.
@Susan Yes, one of several typos (now fixed).
@Susan the three question seem to overlap considerably - basically the same question, but with three different interpretations offered in the Q and the question in each case phrased as "is this correct?" ... Perhaps edit one Q to offer all three options?

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