he arrives at $L = cv^2$ ($c$ some constant) and he out of nowheere says that $c$ must be $\frac{1}{2}m$, because when you take euler lagrange on it, you should get the same thing as newton does.
this logic is not solid in my opinion, why spending 5 pages on inertial frames, if in the end, you look for function whose erivative matches newton's ($m\ddot x$)