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00:00
I was thinking of starting to learn Abstract Algebra. Is Dummit and Foote still the go to book or have there been any new popular books on Abstract Algebra in recent times?
No idea. But Dummit and Foote is a perfectly fine book for an undergrad.
I've heard good things about Carter's Visual Group Theory but I have no first hand experience of the text.
I prefer Artin, but it's more challenging. It's more innovative and shows a lot more breadth of mathematical content.
Dummit and Foote have almost too many exercises.
@TedShifrin That is another book that I have heard very good things about.
But my only experience of Artin is Tate's thesis.
My algebra book is more accessible than any of the ones we're talking about, and more restrained. It is controversial in doing rings/field extensions before groups.
@TedShifrin @XanderHenderson I will check out all three books. Thanks a lot for the suggestions!
 
2 hours later…
02:24
@Yai0Phah You know what? Actually, I found that formula during the proof of $[\mathcal{L}_X,\iota_Y] = \iota_{[X,Y]}$.
Better to.prove that formula directly, as I posted to you.
Yes, I saw it.
 
3 hours later…
05:11
@TedShifrin I didn't know you have algebra textbook. I just ordered it via my college library book order service.
you can also see it for free in the british museum, it's one of the three things etched into the rosetta stone
3
(this is a joke about ted being old)
rings/fields first is a pedagogically superior approach
seems to be a lot of questions lately that seem to be using mse in lieu of a textbook
what could possibly go wrong
i've been a little snippy
It's also that time of year of midterms and such and people panicking because they can't find an answer for one of their HW online (and they don't have Chegg or whatnot)
05:19
i think it must be hard to learn math these days with so many free resources available to mix and match
easily availability has got to remove the impetus to solve
so many misunderstandings on MSE are just, yes, the choice of definition actually matters, no, not everybody in the universe uses the same definition as your instructor, whether this is easy or hard absolutely does depend on how you can relate your current problem to what you already know, and none of that is googlable
i would never have looked for creative solutions to chernoff's problems using the Banach Alaoglu if mse was around.
i can see why different definitions throw folks when they are starting out.
if find theSchwarz lemma very unintuitive.
the stumbling point for so many people is just, the logical structure of this is the point, and the logical structure of this depends on what you know
there's no holy tablet somewhere with the 50 Math Things That You Get To Use etched on it
and if you ask for an explanation of a problem like that's how it is, it will go badly for you
the schwarz lemma is magic
since i am really cranky today, another thing that bugs me is the wandering question. i answer and then "oh, i meant blah", followed by a few iterations of the evolving question.
i find amusing the questions/comments that suggest that the author has just uncovered a deep flaw in mathematics; makes one wonder what they thought all the mathematicians of past were doing all along.
i need a glass of something relatively strong, methinks
05:30
There was a weird convexity question earlier.
Schwartz lemma is about negative curvature :)
the solution to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/4570737/… was what prompted my Schwartz remark.
05:48
Did you see Convexity without Differentiability?
06:06
I have the following theorem: Let $f : \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ and $x_0 \in \mathbb{R}^n$. If $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$, then all of the partial derivatives of the components of f exist at $x_0$, and the standard matrix of $Df(x_0) : \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ is $f^{\prime}(x_0) \in M_{m \times n}(\mathbb{R})$ in other words, $$Df(x_0)(\textbf{h}) = f^{\prime}(x_0)\textbf{h}.$$
The above theorem says that if $f$ is differentiable at that point, then all of the partial derivatives exist at that point. The converse is not true however. Even if the partial derivatives exist at some point, it does not necessarily mean the function is differentiable.
Is there a way to at least find a partial converse to this theorem?
@TedShifrin Thanks! Just taking a look, it think it is just increasing secants.
The standard theorem is $C^1$ (continuous and continuous partials) implies differentiable.
@copper.hat Very subtle, if so. And there’s the weird sorta-converse.
Note that $\lambda a$ isn’t even in the interval :)
@TedShifrin Heya Ted , do you have some good reading material about the French railroad metric ? been a while since I took analysis
I did prove tht this is a metric but I would like to understand what are the open sets here and how this related to the eucledian metric space
06:18
the french railroad metric is d(x,y) = infty if x neq y because there's some kind of strike on about something
@leslietownes this is why i pinged Ted specifically to avoid such answers
OK. there is a notion of 'equivalence' of metrics, and there is also a notion of a pair of metrics providing the same notion of open sets even if they are not the same as metrics.
@TedShifrin something doesn't look right, but that may be the pinot speaking.
speaking somewhat crudely for a moment, this is sometimes a question about whether balls can be stuffed into other balls.
i don't actually know what the french railroad metric is. i'm guessing d(x,y) has something to do with traveling a path from x to paris and then from paris to y. but if we're talking R^n (as hinted at by "the euclidean metric space"?) i might need to know what paris is.
there is only one notion of open sets induced by a metric, if one assumes that the metric is induced by a norm on a vector space (like R^n) and the vector space is finite dimensional (like R^n)
is this strike thing induced by a norm?
@JackOhara I’m afraid I don’t know even what the metric is (at least by that name).
06:29
$d(x,y) = \begin{cases} \|x-y\|, & \text{if $x,y,0$ are collinear;} \\
\|x\| +\|y\|, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}
$
@copper.hat It may, but it looks wrongly to me, and my martini was 5 hours ago.
it is this one Ted !
you have to go to the origin to measure the distance
so if the points are not colinear you have to do some detour of sort
Not quite. If x and y are on the same side of the origin, that’s wrong (in the collinear case).
what do you mean by same side of the origin?
I’ve not seen this before, that I recall.
06:32
okay i will keep my search !
thanks anyway sir
If the origin is outside the line segment $[x,y]$.
yes but from what I understood that would fall in case 2
The small balls around $x$ are just line segments parallel to $x$, unless $x=0$. Very not comparable to the usual topology.
You said collinear … you didn’t refer to ordering
it is one strange metric
let me try some examples and come back
Take $y$ a positive multiple of $x$ versus negative multiple .
06:35
I added a counterexample to the convex question.
@TedShifrin So, if the function exists in a neighbourhood around $x_0$ and is continuous on that neighbourhood, then $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$?
I’m just saying your saying you have to go through the origin isn’t right as stated.
back to scratching my head with the Schwartz lemma.
That’s not at all what I said, @Ajay
Huh, i'm confused...
06:37
@copper That statement was lunacy. He wants to deduce $b>a$ from convexity and …
You left out the most important criterion, Ajay.
You do mean to say that if the partial derivatives of a function exist and are continuous at some point, then the function is differentiable at that point. Right?
@TedShifrin oops, i didn't read properly. i think the OP may be correct.
i need to adjust my answer. should not drive & derive.
Yes … but your previous sentence didn’t mention partials!
@copper My second comment gave a stupid counterexample.
indeed, but i am curious if one assumes $b \neq a$.
Me too.
06:49
even with $b \neq a$, i believe the statement is false, i think it depends on the signs of $b,a$ as well. however, i am done for the night! good night @Ted.
Gnight!
Wait ted!
I still have a few things to clarify
Let $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ and $x_0 \in mathbb{R}^n$. Write $f=(f_1,...,f_m)$. Then if the function $\frac{\partial f_i}{\partial x_j} : \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow mathbb{R}$ exists in a neighbourhood around $x_0$ and is continuous on that neighbourhood, then $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$?
Since the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $x_0$, denoted by $f^{\prime}(x_0)$, is $$\big( \frac{\partial f_i}{\partial x_j}(x_0) \big) \in M_{m \times n}(\mathbb{R})$$ provided that all of partial derivatives are continuous.
I think this works because we can consider the functions $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ because $f$ outputs vectors in $\mathbb{R}^n$ we can write $f = (f_1,...,f_m)$ where $f_i : \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ for $i = 1,...,m$. Since each of these functions $f_i$ are scalar-valued, we can compute their partial derivatives.
Do let me know if i'm correct or not.
Well nvm for now, have a good night's rest :)
08:04
@copper.hat Related:
607
Q: Exit strategies for "chameleon questions"

AarobotI'm not sure if there's already an existing term for this, so I'm inventing my own. (tl;dr: I call them "chameleon questions" because they change every time you submit or edit an answer. If you're already intimately familiar with the phenomenon, please skip past the first set of bullet points to...

 
1 hour later…
09:14
@leslietownes I know and I love that joke series.
I caught myself eating paper twice
I know that. That's an old-fashioned memorizing technique.
09:46
12
A: Show that the zero set of $f$ is an orientable submanifold of $\Bbb R^{n+1}$.

23rdLet $$\omega=\sum_{i=1}^{n+1}(-1)^{i-1}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}dx_1\wedge\cdots \wedge dx_{i-1}\wedge dx_{i+1}\wedge\cdots \wedge dx_{n+1}$$ Since $0$ is a regular value of $f$, $$df\wedge \omega= \sum_{i=1}^{n+1}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}\right)^2dx_1\wedge\cdots\wedge dx_{n+1}...

This argument cannot be generalized to an arbitrary smooth map $f:M\to N$ between smooth orientable manifolds $M$ and $N$.
 
1 hour later…
10:58
Let $f:\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$ be a smooth curve given by $f(x,y) = \sqrt{1+x^2+y^2}$. Define a smooth vector field $\nabla f$ on $\Bbb R^2$ by
$$df = {xdx+y dy\over\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2}} = {4\over\sqrt{(1+x^2+y^2)^3}}\langle\nabla f,\cdot\rangle,$$
where $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$ is a standard inner product in $\Bbb R^2$.
To find the vector field $\nabla f$, I let $\nabla f = f_1{\partial\over\partial x}+f_2{\partial\over\partial y}$ for some smooth functions $f_1,f_2$ on $\Bbb R^2$. Then
$$df\left({\partial\over\partial x}\right) = {x\over\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2}} = {4\over \sqrt{(1+x^2+y^2)^3}}\left\langle\nabla f,{\partial\over\partial x}\right\rangle = {4\over \sqrt{(1+x^2+y^2)^3}} f_1$$
So $f_1(x,y) = {1\over 4}x(1+x^2+y^2)$ and similarly, $f_2 = {1\over 4}y(1+x^2+y^2)$. Is this a correct argument?
 
2 hours later…
13:17
If you are given something like this
Is there a way you could quickly tell the function?
In this case it's $f(x) = (x^2 + 1)(x + 2)$ btw, the $(x + 2)$ part is deduced from it being $0$ at $x = -2$, so what's left is the $(x^2 + 1)$ part
How would you go about finding that out?
@ILikeMathematics Not without more information.
If you know that the function is a polynomial, then there are some things you can do---the structure of polynomials is pretty rigid.
For example, if you assume that it is cubic, and you know four points on the curve, then you can deduce the coefficients of the polynomial.
For a kind of high level approach: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrange_polynomial
At a more high school / precalc level, your polynomial function is given by $p(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx + d$. Each point you "plug in" gives you a linear equation in four variables, e.g. $0 = p(-2) = -8a + 4b - 2c + d$. Plug in four points, and you get four linear equations in four variables, which is solvable using elementary means.
14:19
@PM2Ring :-)
Do you have any tips on drawing the tangent to a point on a function?
I heard sketching the osculating circle around that point and joining the center and the point, giving you the normal from which you can construct the tangent is sometimes more accurate
@ILikeMathematics For what purpose?
I mean, what you are describing is essentially Descartes' approach, and is perfectly fine.
@XanderHenderson Reading off the slope; determining the derivative
@ILikeMathematics Again, why? We have better technology, now, such as the derivative.
What is the end goal?
@XanderHenderson Well, on an exam, you might just be given the graph and you need to determine the derivative at a certain point
14:27
On such an exam, I would rely on the instructor to have given you some direction about how to address such a problem.
Personally, I wouldn't assign such a problem, as I don't really see the point of it (though I might ask about the sign of the derivative at some point, I suppose).
@XanderHenderson I thought of quickly finding the function and taking the derivative, then plugging in the x value, but in the end, it seems like just drawing the tangent is faster if the function isn't a polynomial of very nice form
@ILikeMathematics Are you trying to get an approximation of the derivative, or do you want to actually know what the derivative is?
@XanderHenderson Most likely only a good approximation is expected for such a problem
Again, I would ask your instructor what their expectations are. As I don't really see the value of the question, I have no idea what might be expected in terms of an answer.
Alright, thanks
 
2 hours later…
16:58
copper: is "howeve" how the young kids say however these days? :D
:-) i think that is last gen now
I just learned about the Post correspondence problem
haha his name was even Emil Post! that's too perfect
Basically you have a bunch of dominos with a string on the top and bottom, and you want to arrange these dominos (repetitions allowed) so that the same string appears as you read across either row
i have the most pressing quandary in etiquette. my father-in-law has an alphabet A with at least two letters, and my in-laws are bringing two lists of words over A to thanksgiving dinner
17:10
lol
I'm curious what the smallest example is whose smallest solution is, say, over 1000 dominos long
It's an undecidable problem which means that the possible lengths of solutions grow extremely fast in terms in the size of the input
Consider the following statement.
Integral between 0 and 2pi of [f(x)]^2 is a real number (not infinity) IF AND ONLY IF Fourier serie associated with f has mean square convergence to f.
Is it true?
I don't remember
I thought it worked iff the sum of the squares of the Fourier coefficients converged
(assuming f is real, anyway)
the "only if" is definitely true.
yeah, the question is just if what akiva said is equivalent to the above. it probably is because of orthogonality? i dunno
In $PCP[s,w]$, $s$ is the size (number of pairs) and $w$ is the width (longest word involved)
(PCP = Post Correspondence Problem)
$PCP[2]$, where there are only two dominos, is apparently known to be solvable
17:44
@leslietownes Can you translate this into an alphabet I’ll understand?
@TedShifrin It's an oblique reference to Post's Correspondence Problem, which I was talking about
(and which is explained in the link I just shared)
ted: there's some computational problem, "post's correspondence problem," and for hilarious reasons it is due to someone named emil (not emily) post
I don't get it
Oh, author
for people who (unlike ted) did not go to high school with emily post, i should say that emily post was known for writing about etiquette in the early 20th century
I have lost my curiosity.
17:48
That reference went completely over my head
Yes, Emily Post I got.
Apparently the problem with dominos $\binom{10}0$, $\binom0{001}$, $\binom{001}1$ is still unknown
"A Post canonical system, also known as a Post production system, ...". Of course, Googling "Post production system" is unlikely to get you stuff about Post canonical systems.
Not to be confused with the fictional architect, Wilbur Post, who owned a talking horse.
No one can talk to a horse, of course!
18:04
there's also mike post, who wrote the theme songs for various tv shows, including law and order and (my personal fave) the rockford files
@AkivaWeinberger Unless, of course, that horse is the famous Mr Ed.
@leslietownes Rockford is such a great exemplar of what it is. Gosh, I love that show.
and so many wonderful guest stars. and some of the locations you can still see more or less unchanged.
i like to imagine that my southern california life is just an episode of the rockford files.
free bill posters
@leslietownes Indeed.
18:21
Bill Posters will burn in hell
howdy @robjohn
At last, they're working on improving the workflow to deal with plagiarism:
19
Q: Feedback request: Proposed new flagging and moderation workflow for plagiarism

Bella_BlueA while ago one of the mods from SO requested help in dealing with plagiarism on SO. While we didn’t have an answer at the time, we have been working with the moderators to better understand this issue so that we could come up with a plan to help tackle this problem. For more context please see t...

@TedShifrin hey, Ted. How goes? It is slated to rain a bit here for the next few days.
we've had drizzle on and off all morning.
18:42
You mean we have to refine our methods of stealing others' answers?
@robjohn Yes, apparently here too, tomorrow. Bad weather is never good for voter turnout :(
Maybe it'll stop those who want to vote out democracy.
19:13
@TedShifrin yes, that is true.
won't stop my family.
Heavy rain here too
We've had less than 0.1" so far, but we were slated for 2" at one point. I don't know what the forecast is now.
Underwater integral challenge when?
19:39
Hello! Can someone please help me?
Let $c:I\to\mathbb{R}$ a regular curve with curvature $k > 0, \forall t\in I$. <br>
Then, $k(t)=\frac{||\dot{c}(t)\times\ddot{c}(t)||}{||\dot{c}(t)||^3}$, where $\dot{c}$ and $\ddot{c}$ are first and second derivative of function $c$. <br>
Ok, so this is the context. Now, my proof starts with: <Br>
>Let $s$ = natural parameter of curve. Then $\frac{dc}{dt} = \frac{dc}{dt}\frac{dt}{ds}$.<br>
Let $h$ be the inverse function of $s$. So, $h(s)=t$. Then, $\frac{dc}{ds}(h(s))=\frac{dc}{dt}(h(s))\frac{dh}{ds}$ [...]
20:01
@TedShifrin i finally added a $b<a$ counterexample to that convex question from yesterday.
just curious. does a function satisfying the following exist? $$ \sum_{\text{p}~\text{prime}}f_p(x)=\prod_{n\in \Bbb N} g_n(x) $$
20:30
@geocalc33 I would write a question on MSE on that
Could someone give me a hint to this question:

Given a real v.s. X an d C an open convex subset of $X$ such that $0\in C$. I define $p(x)=\inf\{ t^{-1}: t>0, tx\in C\}$. I want to show that $x\in C$ iff $p(x)<1$.

Then $\Leftarrow$ implication was easy. Now I want to show $\Rightarrow$ but somehow with contradiction I don't see what to to. I wanked to pick $p(x)=1/t'$ such that $1/t'\geq 1$ so $1\geq t'$. But then I don't see where to continue
your inequality is reversed
also, you may not be able to write $p(x)=1/t^{\prime}$
but $p(x)\le1/t^{\prime}<1$ for some $t^{\prime}>0$ s.t. $t^{\prime}x\in C$ and that's all you'll need
hmm I don't see why this is enough
So I want to show it by contradiction, isn't this the best way @Thorgott
20:47
@Overtherainbow if $x \in C$ then there is some open set $U$ such that $x \in U \subset C$ and so $\rho(x) <1$.
@copper.hat Yes, I saw. I also brought the confusion to the attention of the guy who'd written a perfectly good answer to the question we expect it to be.
:-)
of course, i completely misread the question originally, thanks for catching that!
I don't think the OP meant my interpretation. I think he meant the obvious one. But who knows.
@Overtherainbow I wouldn't do it that way
Consider $F(y)=\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{\sqrt{\log(xy)}}{x^2+1}dx$. The function $f(x,y)=\frac{\sqrt{\log(xy)}}{x^2+1}$ is $C^1((1,\infty)\times(1,\infty))$, so the integral function is $C^1((1,\infty))$ and hence it is $F'(y)=\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1}{2y\sqrt{\log(xy)}(x^2+1)}dx$. My book asks for $\lim_{y\to+\infty} F(y)$ and $\lim_{y\to+\infty} F'(y)$. Since $f$ is $C^1((1,\infty)\times(1,\infty))$
I believe that the limits should commute with the integrals, but I am not sure about this. Is this still valid for improper integrals? I am not sure because the improper integral is a limit itself, hence if it is valid I am inverting the order of limits and I don't think this is valid in general.
20:55
@Mathphile Okay I will
@Thorgott would you do it in copper's way or in a different one?
@copper.hat why do I know that such a $U$ exists?
I thought you wrote that $C$ was open?
if so, then $s x \in C$ for some $s>1$, just by continuity.
Ah right it is open. But I don't get why we immediately deduce that $p(x)<1$
copper is talking about a different direction of the argument than I
@Thorgott okey but could you also explain me yours?
21:13
i thought you said you were working on the => direction?
@copper.hat yes, so I assume $x\in C$ and I want to show $p(x)<1$.

I agree with you that since $C$ is open there exists $U$ open such that $x\subset U\subset C$ . But I don't get the connection to $p(x)$
just in case your interested
if $sx \in C$ for some $s>1$ then $\rho(x) \le {1 \over s} < 1$.
it would help to draw little diagrams of the situation imo
But for what do you need this open $U$ then?
how did i conclude that there is some $s>1$ such that $sx \in C$???
21:24
Doesn't this follows since $C$ is open?
Otherwise I don't see how you conclude it, you say from continuity but continuity of what?
which direction are you trying to prove?
$x\in C$ implies $p(x)<1$
forget the continuity remark, if there is some $s>1$ such that $sx \in C$ then can you see that $\rho(x) < 1$ by definition?
yes because then $1/s<1$ and $p(x)\leq 1/s<1$ right?
yes. this is what you ae trying to show, right?
21:27
right so I need to show that there exists such an $s$ then I would be done right?
yes, but that is straightforward since $C$ is open, right?
So I mean intuitivly yes since there is a small open ball around $x$ contained in $C$ and then I can multiply $x$ buy a real number $s >1$ such that $sx$ still remains in this open ball so inparticular $sx\in C$
ok, now back to continuity.
But wouldn't my argument be done after my last comment?
consider the function $f(t) = tx$. Since $f(1) \in C$ and $C$ is open...
well, intuition is nice for inspiration, but it does not pass muster in aproof, which is what you are trying to do, right
21:32
ah so the continuity argument should verify my intuition comment?
that is the goal, yes
@copper.hat Okey now back to your comment. $f(1)=x\in C$ and $C$ is open. So there exists a ball $B(f(1), r)\subset C$ right?
But since $f$ is continuous $f^{-1}(B(x,r))$ is open in $\Bbb{R}$
as i wriote above since the is an open $U$ such that $x \in U \subset C$ then there is some interval $(a,b)$ with $1\in (a,b)$ such that $f(t) \in C$.
in particular, $b>1$.
ah so your open interval $(a,b)=f^{-1}(B(x,r))$?
21:42
ah and so I can pick $b>1$ and get that $f(b)=bx\in B(x, r)\subset C$ and I have found my $"s"$
exactly
makes sense thanks!
the Minkowski functional is a very useful idea
what is the minkowski functional?
the $\rho$.
defined by the set $C$.
22:12
ah
 
1 hour later…
23:37
@TedShifrin The OP changed the question to add $a,b \ge 0$.
Are we still trying to prove $b>a$?
That OP doesn't understand basic language/logic. He now clarifies that he wants to prove that $b>a$, and yet tells the other responder that he had shown exactly what he wanted.

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