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8:38 PM
$(1+p)^{p^{n-1}}\equiv1\pmod{p^n}$ is true for $n=1$,

Suppose the equivalence is true for some $n\ge1$, then
$$
\begin{align}
(1+p)^{p^n}
&=\left((1+p)^{p^{n-1}}\right)^p\tag1\\[12pt]
&=(1+cp^n)^p\tag2\\[9pt]
&=1+p\left(cp^n\right)+\sum_{k=2}^p\binom{p}{k}\left(cp^n\right)^k\tag3\\
&=1+p^{n+1}\left(c+\sum_{k=2}^p\binom{p}{k}c^kp^{n(k-1)-1}\right)\tag4
\end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(1)$: $x^{ab}=\left(x^a\right)^b$
$(2)$: inductive hypothesis (the equivalence is true for $n$)
$(3)$: the Binomial Theorem
 
That's what I did in my answer :).
The idea was the same :).
 
Yes, the idea is the same. It is simply the order of things and the way it is written that makes it a bit clearer. You find your own clear because you know what is going on.
but when I first read it, I had to think, why does this follow? Also, several equations on a line are a bit confusing, though not to the person who wrote them.
It is the same proof, just reorganized and clarified.
I am not saying yours is wrong, just a bit difficult to follow.
 
I see. :)
But after edit, is my answer clear to follow?
Or is it still unclear to follow even after the edit?
 
clear and easy are not the same thing.
let me reread
 
please professor Rob, let me know if you find any issue with the answer. :)
Thanks a lot for the help :).
 
8:48 PM
equation $(2)$:
$$((1+p)^{p^{n-2}} )^{p} =(1+p)^{p^{n-1}} =\color{blue}{(1+kp^{n-1} )^{p}} =1+\sum _{j=1}^{p}\binom{p}{j} (kp^{n-1} )^{j}$$
the first equation is backwards. It would be easier to follow if it were reversed.
of course, it would be better if each equation has its own line
 
I get stuck while writing long lines.
I don't understand how to break them
My equations sometimes don't look right sometimes in mobile device for example.
okay, I'll fix that. Thanks a lot.
$\ddot\smile$
 
@Koro look at what I have there. You know how to get the code for the MathJax?
 
@robjohn Done! Of course with latexing issues.
@robjohn yes, i do.
 
They used to show multiline MathJax as multilines, now it seems to show up as one line when you look at it. :-(
 
How do I write \imply in align environment?
You have not used \implies, but I have.
 
8:58 PM
In chat. On the main site, they do show up as multilines
 
It seems that \implies doesn't work well with align enviroment.
 
\implies
no, it doesn't line up quite right
you can play with \! and \,
the former removes space and the latter adds space
 
yeah, I think I should remove \implies from my answer. And I never used \! before :P
Also, we can use & only at one place to fix things right?
For example: one ampersand to align implies and one to align = is not possible.
 
@Koro No you can use multiple but they alternate left and right justification
 
:(
And how do I write $1^0$ inside a tag?
 
9:07 PM
$\begin{align}1&2&3&4\end{align}$
@Koro tags convert the inside to text
$\tag{$1^0$}$
there ^^^--->
 
Because if I write 1a, you'll sue me. :P
So I thought I'll write the tag in Zorich style :).
 
$\tag{1a}$ is used in lots of books. I would have no grounds to sue
 
@robjohn I see. Thanks a lot. With this understanding, I'm editing the answer now.
:)
 
You'll see $\text{(1a)}$ when writing tags inside the document
that's because $(1a)$ looks like $(1a)$ not $\text{(1a)}$
 
hmm, I see.
 
9:12 PM
a side effect of tags being defaulted to text
 
I have edited the answer now.
I hope it looks better now :).
Alas, in the post it looks like as if in "Note that section" 1 and (2), 3 and (3) etc. are interacting with each other.
 
9:33 PM
The tags with the $1^0$ etc look awful
we are going to get food. I'll see you later.
 
See you! Have a good day ahead :).
 

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