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5:40 AM
@JohnRennie Good morning sir.
 
5:51 AM
@Bhavay hi :-)
 
@JohnRennie Please ping me when you are free
 
@Bhavay I think I'm free now. The other chats seem to have gone quiet.
 
I want to discuss some questions in KTG
 
KTG?
 
Kinetic theory of Gases
 
6:01 AM
OK ... ?
 
Q28 , page 35
 
In Verma?
 
Yes
volume 2
 
During an experiment ...
 
Yes.
Sir my doubt is why can't i simply use $V_1/T_1=V_2/T_2$. The question specify it follows an additional law , so it must be following the previous laws too.
 
6:04 AM
I think the point is that the pressure, volume and temperature are all changing at the same time.
In effect it's like an adiabatic process with $\gamma = 2$.
You know that for an adiabatic process we have $PV^\gamma = constant$? Yes?
 
@JohnRennie Sir actually no.... I mean i did study it , but i have to revise it and then solve problems from thermodynamics chapter.
 
If you take some volume V of gas and compress is adiabatically then all three of P, V and T change.
 
Should i circle back to this question when i have revised thermo ?
 
P increases while V decreases because the gas is being compressed, but because we are putting in work the temperature also goes up.
So you can't use e.g. Boyle's law because that assumes the temperature is constant, but here it is changing.
@Bhavay this question is much easier than you think and you don't need to revise anything to do it.
We are told that $PV^2 = const$, yes?
 
So the only thing constant is n.
 
6:09 AM
Yes. We'll assume $n = 1$ for convenience.
 
$PV/T=constant$
 
Yes, for an ideal gas it us always true that $PV = RT$
So that means $P = RT/V$, and we can use this to substitute for $P$ in $PV^2 = const$. Yes?
 
Aha, multiply by V and $VT=constant$
 
Yes :-)
 
but sir , how did you know that pressure is changing ?
(Other than experience )
 
6:11 AM
If $PV^2 = const$ and $V$ is changing that must mean $P$ is changing. Yes?
 
Ohh!
@JohnRennie Understood.
Next Q?
 
Yes
 
Q30 , A vertical ...(same page)
The problem i am facing is , that i don't think any mercury can be put over as then the piston move downwards due to unequal pressure.
 
Without any mercury the piston is at the top of the tube and the air in the tube is at atmospheric pressure. Yes?
 
Yes
$P_o=P_o$
 
6:16 AM
Now suppose we move the piston halfway down the tube i.e. we compress the air inside so the pressure is 2 atm (gauge pressure is 1 atm). OK so far?
 
yes. But then by that logic we can compress the air till the bottom by pouring more and more mercury.
 
Ah, but what you are forgetting is that the distance from the piston to the top of the tube is only 50cm, so we can't pour in more than 50cm of mercury.
And 50cm of mercury is only ⅔ of an atm. Yes?
 
@JohnRennie the length of tube is 100cm. Isn't the piston at top i.e at 100cm (initially)
So total mercury that can be poured = 100cm
 
Initially the piston is at the top so the distance of the piston from the top of the tube is zero. What I'm saying is that if we push the piston halfway down the distance from the piston to the top of the tube is now 50cm.
So we can now pour in 50cm of mercury.
 
But why till half ?
 
6:22 AM
When you have a problem like this it's often good to start with a trial calculation to see what happens, and that's what I am doing.
What I'm going to show you is that we cannot compress the piston to 50cm by puring in mercury.
Then I'm going to show you that we can compress it 10cm by pouring in mercury.
So somewhere in between there must be a maximum compression.
Once you understand this we can write the equation for x cm instaed of 50cm or 10cm, then solve for x.
 
Oh so 50cm = a trial number so to reduce the spectrum where the max value lie.
 
Yes, and to help understand the problem.
 
@JohnRennie i am using my pc.
 
The key point is that the mercury fills the space between the piston and the top of the column, and that restricts how much mercury we can add.
I can draw a diagram if it will help.
 
it is fine
 
6:26 AM
Suppose we compress the air column to a length $x$, i.e. the distance of the piston from the top of the column is $100-x$.
Then the maximum amount of mercury we can pour in is $100-x$ cm. Yes?
 
yes
sir wait.
 
So the pressure created by the mercury is $P_m = (100-x)/75$ atm.
 
@JohnRennie I remember trying this approach last night.
The problem that i faced was:
That , how can this be true $P_o +\rho g (100-x)=P_o$?
 
@Bhavay I don't understand how you got that equality.
 
The LHS = pressure exerted by Hg
Rhs =pressure by the other side of psiton
 
6:32 AM
Let's just use the gauge pressure i.e. the gauge pressure is $P - 1atm$.
75cm of mercury = 1atm, so $100-x$ cm of mercury is $(100-x)/75$ atm. Yes?
 
yes
 
Now the air in the cylinder was initially at 1 atm, and we compressed it from 100cm to $x$ cm, so the pressure inside the tube is now $100/x$ atm i.e. the gauge pressure is $P_a = 100/x - 1$
 
oh wait , I understood my mistake.
when the Air column is compressed , pressure is no longer $P_0$
 
Yes :-)
That should make the problem easy now.
 
I have another question.
 
6:37 AM
I have another question pending. Let me deal with that and I'll get back to you.
 
Okay , np.
 
@Bhavay ah, OK, satan29 says to answer your question first :-)
So what number is the question?
(oops that was you :-)
 
@JohnRennie Q34
I don't understand why i am getting the wrong answer.
The B means : Boyle's Law.(when tube is turned over)
I took everything in SI units.
The calculation is done by mathway, so i must be wrong in concepts somewhere.
 
So initially we have 45cm of air at each end at 1atm, and a 10cm plug of mercury separating the two (the mercury just behaves as a 10cm long sliding piston). Yes?
 
@JohnRennie Sir please go through my method first.
 
6:49 AM
How do you want to do this? Do you want to talk me through what you did? Or shall I say how I would solve it?
@Bhavay OK, you talk me through how you did it.
 
Initially the tube is turned upside down. I have shown it in the diagram and equated the net force =0
P1 is the pressure by lower side. Po=atm
Okay so far?
 
The tube isn't turned. It remains horizontal throughout.
 
@JohnRennie oops i meant question 33.
 
OK :-) I was confused for a moment :-)
 
@JohnRennie My apologies.
 
6:53 AM
OK, let's go. I find it really hard to read hand written notes so can you explain your calculation here?
 
The net force on the mercury column should be 0. I have just equated net force =0 and then calculated initial pressure in terms of Po.
 
The pressure at the bottom of the mercury column is $P_0 = 1$ atm, and the pressure change along a 10cm mercury column is 10/75 atm, so the pressure at the top of the mercury column is $P_{top} = 1 - 10/75$ atm.
 
Yes
@JohnRennie Although i did everything in si unit.
 
So the pressure of the air in the first step when the closed end is at the top is $P_1 = 65/75$ atm.
 
Can you also use SI units ?
 
6:58 AM
$P_1 = 65/75 \times 101325$ Pa
Yes?
 
Now use bolyes law
P2=P1*20/x
 
OK, you mean to find the volume the gas would have at 1 atm? I wouldn't do that yet ...
 
@JohnRennie no , when the tube is turned over.
 
I would use the same argument we just used to find the pressure when the tube is turned over. The pressure is going to be $P_2 = 1 + 10/75$ atm. Yes?
 
Yes , and P2=P1*20/x
Yes?
 
7:03 AM
Yes
$x = 20 \times P_1/P_2$
$$ x = 20 \frac{1 - 10/75}{1 + 10/75} $$
 
Does this equation make sense?
 
You have a sign wrong I think
 
Where?
 
$P_1 = 101325 - 13510$ and $P_2 = 101325 + 13510$. Yes?
 
Is it correct now?
 
7:08 AM
Yes, I think that's correct now.
 
@JohnRennie and i get x=15.2
But x should be 48
 
Verma gives the answer as 15cm. See page 38.
48cm is the answer to q35. Did you misread it?
 
Lol , i did.
 
:-)
 
Sorry i took 20 cm
 
7:12 AM
Yes :-)
 
Sir one more q?
 
Yes
 
Sir q35.
I am getting the wrong answer, I checked twice now!
Shall i explain my working ?
 
Yes, go ahead.
 
$76\times A\times 43= (76+20\sqrt3/2) \times A\times L$
 
7:19 AM
cos(60) = ½ not √3/2
 
Doesn't matter i did that too. It was not clear to me whether rotation of 60 was with vertical or horizontal
$76\times A\times 43= (76+20/2) \times A\times L$
 
Give me a moment to do the calculation ...
 
I get 38.
 
OK, I just did the calculation and got the correct answer. The tube is tiltedt 60° to the vertical so we use cos(60) = ½
Do you want to go through your calculation with this angle, or shall I go through mine?
 
2 mins ago, by Bhavay
$76\times A\times 43= (76+20/2) \times A\times L$
Is this correct ?
 
7:23 AM
No
 
I want to know why not
 
I don't understand your equation at all ...
You need to find $P_1$ and $P_2$ as in the last question then use Boyle's law. Yes?
 
Sir , I don't understand my equation either . But the instructor in a yt video does the question by that.
I was hoping you will understand it and then explain it to me. I can send the link of yt video of if u want.
 
I suggest we do the calculation our way, and see if we get anything like the instructor's equation. It may be a rearrangement that I don't recognise.
 
I want to do calculation in Hg.
Give me a moment to try it
 
7:30 AM
OK :-)
 
$PV=const$
When the tube is horizontal (assuming it is horizontal initially ) : $P_1V_1=76\times A\times 43$
 
The tube is vertical initially ...
 
Ohh
 
I am doing it here because I am lazy to do it in a nb. Plus i will bookmark it later whenever i want to review it again.
When tube is vertical : $P_1V_1=76\times A\times (43+20)$
 
7:36 AM
That doesn't look right ...
 
I see a problem too.
 
$P_1 = P_0(1 + 20/76)$. Yes?
($P_0 = 1$ atm)
 
or 76 cm of hg
$P_1V_1=(76+20)\times A\times (43+20)$
 
I don't get it. $V_1 = 43 \times A$
 
Isn't weight of 20cm hg also gonna act ?
 
7:40 AM
So $P_1 V_1 = P_0(1 + 20/76) \times 43 \times A$
$V_1$ is the volume of the air.
 
okay okay , i see my mistake.
 
We are going to apply Boyle's law to the volume of the air.
 
$P_2V_2=(76+10) \times A \times x$
Okay?
 
Yes
 
Voila!
 
7:44 AM
:-)
 
@JohnRennie Sir last question. A really small doubt.
 
Yes ... ?
 
In Q36 , why is pressure of both sides same?
 
It says the separator can slide freely. Yes?
 
yes
 
7:47 AM
So the net force on the separator must be zero, because if the net force was not zero the separator would slide until the net force was zero.
 
And sir will there be a difference in answer if the container was vertical instead of horizontal (This is not asked in the question)?
 
If the separator is massless then there will be no difference.
If the separator has a mass then there will be a difference, because now there must be a pressure difference between the top and bottom of the separator that supports its weight.
 
Okay , thanks . I have a class now.
 
OK, bye :-)
 
Bye . :-)
 
 
8 hours later…
4:01 PM
@JohnRennie An equivalent command in windows would be "sudo shutdown -h +600"
 
@Bhavay Equivalent to shutdown /s /t 60 in Windows?
 
I want to log out/ shutdown my computer automatically .
In my laptop i would use that command ...
I tried using windows scheduler but it is asking for the script.
 
The way I always do stuff like this is to write a batch file. In fact I have a batch file to hand to do exactly this.
 
Would you care to share ?
 
rem ********************************************************************
rem ShutdownServer.bat
rem =================
rem ********************************************************************

set RBLOG=C:\temp\ShutdownServer.log

echo Starting ShutdownServer >%RBLOG%
date /t >>%RBLOG%
time /t >>%RBLOG%

shutdown.exe /s /t 0 1>>%RBLOG% 2>>&1

echo Finished RebootServer >>%RBLOG%
time /t >>%RBLOG%
This will shut the computer down, and it creates a log in the file C:\temp\ShutdownServer.log so you can check when the shutdown command ran.
 
4:07 PM
How can i tweak this too sleep?
Also, do I need to run this by scheduler ?
 
Let me check what the arguments for the shutdown command are ...
shutdown /h /t 0 does a hibernate instead of a shutdown.
So the script is the same but you just change the /s to /h
The way you do this is choose some convenient folder to keep script files e.g. in you Documents folder create a folder called Scripts and keep the script files in there. OK so far?
 
Yes
Can you wait for 5 minutes?
 
Yes, ping me when you want to pick this up.
 
@JohnRennie Hi
 
@Bhavay hi :-)
You'll need to tell Explorer to show suffixes otherwise you won't be able to create a file with the correct suffix.
 
4:17 PM
Sir do i need to save it in .batch ?
 
.bat not .batch
 
@JohnRennie You mean the browser ,as i use chrome.
 
No I did mean Explorer.
 
Just to clarify : Internet Explorer ?
 
No, the file explorer
This is where you tell it to show file extensions.
 
4:21 PM
 
Yes, that looks good.
Now right click it and choose Edit
 
okay , notepad opens up...
 
Yes, and you can copy my script and paste it in.
 
Done.
 
And change the /s to /h
 
4:24 PM
Also done.
 
There is one more thing to do. The script creates a log file in C:\temp\ShutdownServer.log, but I don't think the C:\temp folder exists by default.
So in the file explorer go to C:, right click and create a new folder called temp
 
Why would i need that temp file ?
 
When you're running things from the scheduler it can be very useful to have a log file showing what the scheduled command did.
Because you have no way of seeing what happened if, for example, the scheduled program didn't work.
 
Done.
 
Now you can test it by doubleclicking your new batch file, and it should make your PC hibernate.
 
4:27 PM
I didn't specify date , time.
 
What you've done is create a script that will hibernate your PC. The next step is to tell the scheduler when to run this script, but first let's check it works.
And the way you check it works is to run it manually now and check that it does indeed hobernate your PC.
 
Forgot to save , when i changed the s to h
But now it does nothing.
Earlier it was actually shutting down.
(I cancelled it )
 
Ah, for hiberation we don't need the /t 0. The line should be just:
shutdown.exe /h 1>>%RBLOG% 2>>&1
 
Worked like a charm.
 
:-)
Do we need to talk through creating the scheduled task? Or can you do it?
 
4:36 PM
I have never done it tbh .
 
OK, open the Task Scheduler
 
opened.
 
Done.
 
On the left click on Task Scheduler Library, then on the right click on Create Task
 
4:39 PM
Done.
 
Change the name to something descriptive e.g. Hibernate my PC
 
Done
 
Yes , done.
 
When do you want this to run?
At a specified time?
 
4:41 PM
I wanted to run this today before going to nap this afternoon .
 
Well the Task Scheduler is generally used for running tasks automatically under some predefined circumstances.
 
@JohnRennie Sir , you use windows 10 , but why are we config this for vista ?
 
@Bhavay that was just the default. I don't think it matters what you choose.
Anyhow, what should the conditions be for hibernating the PC?
At a set time? Or if you haven't used it for a time?
 
@JohnRennie Can we specify that if my chrome browser is on , only then run the script.
 
I'm not sure what you mean.
You mean if Chrome is the only app running?
 
4:46 PM
No .
If any app including chrome is running then run the script. If the chrome is not running then don't run the script.
 
These are the only conditions the Task Scheduler can use.
 
OK ... ?
 
I had a different screen.
I don't have the time option.
 
You are looking at a different tab. I showed the Triggers tab. That selects the conditions for the task to be triggered i.e. when the task starts.
 
4:51 PM
Oh got it.
 
The Conditions tab specifies some extra conditions for running the task.
It still isn't clear to me what you're trying to achieve ...
5 mins ago, by Bhavay
If any app including chrome is running then run the script. If the chrome is not running then don't run the script.
But apps will be running all the time.
Presumably you need some way for the task scheduler to tell when you've gone for a nap leaving the PC?
 
I have specified the time.
 
OK. Then go to the Actions tab and click New.
 
And then paste the script which saved.
 
Click the Browse button ...
 
4:55 PM
Done.
Pasted the location of the script.
 
Aha, OK.
That should be it then.
You've told the Task Scheduler to run your Hibernate script at a specified time.
 
Yes, Every monday 5.20pm
 
Just on Mondays? Not every day?
 
The truth is today i had a two hour long class on every Mondays (3.30pm-5.30pm) I wanted to go to sleep but If i slept i was sure that i would never be able to end my meeting. And if my lecturer saw me in the meeting after 5.30 pm he would ask me what are you doing after the class.. So you know...
(I hope u are not angry)
 
Angry? Why would I be angry?
Because you're trying to game the system? If so I heartily approve :-)
 
5:01 PM
You are helping a kid to bunk classes.
 
Whenever Satan29 has a boring lecture he starts asking me about relativity and quantum mechanics to pass the time :-)
 
You are a cool teacher. :-)
 
:-)
 
I think i am the only kid who likes online classes more than college.
I can't do these things in classroom classes.
 
I have fallen asleep in a classroom :-)
But it was in a big lecture theatre and I was at the back.
 
5:06 PM
@JohnRennie Looks like you have the exp of all the things that kid goes through,
 
Everyone does the same stuff as a student. The only difference is that I did it 40 years ago.
Your teachers did it too! :-)
 
Thank you sir . It is getting late here and i have a test tomorrow!
 
OK, see you tomorrow. Bye :-)
 
I will see you tomorrow and continue rest of KTG doubt.
 

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