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00:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

12:00 AM
@TedShifrin No
 
Hi. Let $G \subset H$ be $\sigma$-algebras and suppose that $E[X \mid H]=E[X \mid G]$. It is not implied that $E[|X| \mid H] = E[|X| \mid G]$. Is there perhaps some weak assumption that, when combined with the first equality, would give the second? Doesn't seem so..
 
12:20 AM
oh man 3b1b just uploaded 2 new videos?
it's 3 days too early
 
Howdy, mr @Leaky.
 
hi
 
1:13 AM
> The probability is sometimes written $\mathbb {P}$ to distinguish it from other functions and measure P so as to avoid having to define "P is a probability"
But isn't $\mathbb {P}$ itself a measure (more specifically, a probability measure)? I don't understand this statement in the Wikipedia article.
 
read a book not wikipedia
21
 
Wikipedia is easy to find. Books are hard to choose and often you spend a lot of time to find what you want
 
the notation there is irritating, let's say the probability measure is mu on your probability space X
then P is indeed a measure, but not on X; it's a measure on the real numbers
P(Z in A) is the measure mu(B) where B is the set {x in X such that Z(x) is in A}
yes instead of investing time in finding a book you have instead offloaded that time onto everyone you ask notation questions to lol
 
@MikeMiller So, your probability space is $X=(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mu)$?
 
i named it X
and my random variable is named Z
and A is a subset of the real numbers
B is a subset of X whose definition depends on the random variable Z and the set A
i didnt bother naming the sigma-algebra
 
1:20 AM
But my first doubt is: why do they talk about $\mathbb{P}$ and $P$?
 
bold P is what I call P above
P is what I call mu above
i dont like that they are both named P so i named one something else
 
@MikeMiller I don't understand what it means for x to be X, if X is a probability space, so not a set, but a triple
Maybe X is the event space?
 
lol
 
If Z is a random variable, then x in X must be an event, given that you use the notation Z(x), so X is the event space.
I think I got confused. I thought random variables were functions from the event space, but they are apparently functions from the sample space
 
random variables are measurable functions $\Omega\to\Bbb R$
 
1:31 AM
I never studied measure theory before, but measure theory is required to really understand probability theory, IMHO
Yesterday, someone here defined a random variable from a probability space to the real numbers, but then someone else defined it only from the sample space to the real numbers
I think that sometimes people use the expression "probability space" when the expression "sample space" is required
And I got confused that a random variable was a function from the event space
Any more doubts, sir? :P
Can you guys tell me what people mean by "probability distribution" in the following article: medium.com/tensorflow/…? Are they talking about pdfs, cdfs or probability measures? They use the notation P(x), which is widely used in statistics and machine learning, but a guy told me that this notation does not make sense! I think they mean probability measure and P(x) is a shorthand for P(X=x)
I think they mean probability measure because they use the concept of KL divergence under the hood to approximate the "posterior" (which should then be a probability measure), given that variational inference is based on KL divergence (and alike), which should is used to calculate the dissimilarity between probability measures, whatever that really means!
 
 
2 hours later…
3:38 AM
@MikeMiller I am a little confused about some terminology: a "characteristic class" is what exactly? I thought that a characteristic class of a vector bundle $E$ was an element of the image of the Chern-Weil homomorphism associated to $E$. But then it seems that there is a functorial description where a characteristic class is a natural transformation between the isomorphism class of fixed rank vector bundles (seen as a functor on manifolds) and $H^*$.
These seem like distinctly different things and I don't know if they are referring to different things or there is a way to reconcile the notions.
Oh I think I see it.
I THINK I GOT IT.
So nevermind! :P
They satisfy naturality.
The polynomials, that is.
 
4:30 AM
@anakhro A characteristic class is an assignment of vector bundles to cohomology classes that satisfies naturality for pullback yeah
 
4:47 AM
2
Q: For vectors $(x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n), (y_1,y_2,y_n)$, is "$\forall k$ s.t. $x_k>y_k$, $x_k-y_k>C$ vacuously true when $x_k\leq y_k \ \forall k$?

user106860Where C is some positive constant? Basically, I am confused regarding vacuously true statements and trying to use this constructed example to clarify. The restate the example in slightly more detail, suppose we have two vectors denoted $(x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n), (y_1,y_2,y_n)$. The statement in con...

 
5:41 AM
@BalarkaSen If $w=[\ell_1,\ell_2][\ell_3,\ell_4]\dotsb$ then $S(w)=[\ell_2,\ell_3][\ell_4,\ell_5]\dotsb\ne w$
but $w+S(w)$ is a root of $S(x)=x$ I guess
 
5:52 AM
@AkivaWeinberger what is that?
 
yesterday, by Akiva Weinberger
> Meet the Hawaiian mapping torus - the mapping torus of the shift map. First singular homology is infinite cyclic generated by inner loop. Can you find the non-trivial elements of H_2? If you look at the image, it might feel H_2 is trivial since there is no "enclosed space!"
Thinking about this question
(We know the answer but we were thinking over some details)
 
Is this thing look like some kind of puffed up spiral?
 
It's homotopy equivalent to the complement of a spiral in 3-space, the outer arm of which goes to infinity and the inner bit spirals ever closer and closer to a limiting circle
(The limiting circle is not part of the spiral and so is contained in the complement)
 
I see
 
Carlsen showing off
 
@Rithaniel play?
 
How long will you be on? I'm doing some sprite work at the moment
 
@Rithaniel when are you available?
 
Maybe an hour from now? Maybe thirty minutes
 
6:27 AM
ok
 
Axlers book defines the additive inverse of a complex number z as -z which satisfies z +(-z) =0. From that definition the book goes on to define subtraction in terms of addition as w-z = w+(-z). My question is what is the connection between the additive inverse statement and the subtraction definition?
 
What do you mean? The definition is the connection.
Think about numbers. $5+(-3) = 2$ is the same as $5-3=2$, which is the same as $5=2+3$. (Now you can add the additive inverse of $3$ and get back to the original.)
 
Yes that's what I was asking, that the definition is the connection. I did understand in terms of numbers but not in algebraic terms
 
6:55 AM
@Rithaniel
 
Yeah, just about there. If it takes you any time to set things up, might be a good idea to do that
 
I'm just pinging you for the puzzle lol
 
Ah, gotcha
Hmmm
So, we want a white move that doesn't lock black into mate? Because I believe I see a few
 
that's the point lol
there is exactly one move that is not mate
 
I wanna say g6 to d6 isn't mate
Oh wait, the other bishop
Wait yeah, g6 to c6 and then b7 takes h7
It's interesting to find a board state where it's actually more difficult to lose than to win :P
 
7:08 AM
nice
@Rithaniel so, are you ready?
 
Yep
 
@Rithaniel what time control?
 
I can do 10 minutes. Nice and relaxed, but still a time limit
 
increment?
 
I'll leave that up to you
 
7:11 AM
 
7:34 AM
@Rithaniel I can't send you a game as black unless you register
due to some bug
 
I gotcha. I can still offer a rematch after I look through what went wrong that game
 
looks like I can't go back to the page where I can accept your rematch
creating an account is free
 
Ah, okay, well, when I'm done looking at things I'll try clicking rematch. If you don't receive any kind of notification on that, then I'll create an account, just don't push me into it
 
sure
 
It seems that the computer thinks moving the queen out is generally a bad idea. That seems counter intuitive to me. It's one of my best pieces. Why wouldn't I want to develop it?
 
7:38 AM
because you would need to constantly defend it
 
Yeah, but that's true about any piece I care about
 
so in general one should develop the minor pieces first
well not many pieces can defend the queen
 
Fair
 
you can defend a knight with anything
oh unless it's attacked by a pawn
it's sort of reversed
 
I kept up with you better that game than in the previous two
I never had the advantage, but at least I was hovering around 2 or 3 in your favor, instead of 5
 
7:45 AM
oh and I found the rematch button
 
7:58 AM
That one was much worse. I lack the chess instincts I had back in high school
Like, I shouldn't have lost the queen that early, for sure, but my brain just didn't see the knight, for some reason
 
hmm
 
Getting my ass kicked twice is enough for me, for now. If you're around in about 3 hours, though, I might be in a better mindset for another game
 
ok
 
8:31 AM
@TedShifrin Thank you very much! That's exactly what I was looking for
 
9:15 AM
-1
Q: Solve the initial value problem $(D^2+2aD+b^2)y=\sin \omega t$, $y(0)=y'(0)=0$.

QuasarExercise 4.4, problem 24, page 144 of the book on differential equations by KKOP here. Solve the initial value problem $(D^2+2aD+b^2)y=\sin \omega t$, $y(0)=y'(0)=0$, where $a,b,\omega$ are real constants, $a<b$. Consider separately the cases $\omega \ne \sqrt{b^2-a^2}$ and $\omega = \sqrt{b^...

While trying to find a particular solution to the inhomgenous differential equation, I get some ugly terms, so I would like to ask for someone's help in solving it.
 
ATR
10:07 AM
1
Q: Can two ergodic measures on the same space give rise to isomorphic dynamical systems?

ATRConsider $(X,\mathcal B, T)$, where $T$ is measurable, $X$ is a $d$-dimensional unit cube. If we pick two measures that are ergodic with respect to $T$, $\mu$ and $\nu$, do the systems $(X,\mathcal B, T, \mu)$ and $(X,\mathcal B, T, \nu)$ need to be isomorphic? Seems like I have the following cou...

If there are two orbits of different period of the same measurable transformations that support two different ergodic measures, will the dynamical systems defined by those measures, be isomorphic?
 
10:42 AM
Hi chat
 
11:12 AM
@BalarkaSen The mapping torus's homology comes from the non-geometric part of H_1(H) so idk why one expects to see said homology
I anticipate it looks something like this
Enumerate the circles as x_i, y_i
Let l_i be the loop [x_i, y_i]
Then prod_{i >= 1} l_i defines a loop on the Hawaiian earring
But so does prod_{i >= 2}, and they are not homotopic, as [x_1, y_1] is not null
But [x_1, y_1] is a commutator hence null-homologous, I can fill it out with a torus
This altogether should define a map $\Sigma_{2,2} \to H$ which sends the first boundary to prod_i l_i and the second boundary to prod_{i > 1} l_i, which is exactly what you need to glue up the boundaries as a map to the mapping torus
Sigma_{1,2} sorry. I am gluing in a torus to a cylinder
So we get a genus 2 surface representing the non-trivial homology class
 
11:38 AM
Hi, if a strictly monotonic function is also continuous, is it invertible?
 
Needn't be surjectivd
 
11:58 AM
Cmon you can write down an example of a non-surjective strictly monotonic function
For instance, I'm sure you know a strictly monotonic function on R whose image is only the positive numbers
If you mean "the map is invertible onto its image" meaning that there's a function with domain Im(f) which is inverse to f, that's true
 
12:37 PM
@LeakyNun Hello
 
hi
 
It doesn't have to be continuous for that to be true as well
 
More surprisingly, even without supposing continuity, the inverse function will be continuous (on a usually disconnected domain, however)
 
12:58 PM
@MikeMiller Yes, I meant so
 
Given that there exists an enumeration of the set of finite sets of positive integers, am I correct in thinking that simply replacing each of the finite sets with its complement produces an enumeration of the set of cofinite sets of positive integers?
 
@solisoc yes
 
Cheers
Also, consider the set of all sequences of one or more As e.g. A, AA, AAA, and so forth. Am I correct in my understanding that if we only allow finite sequences of As, this set is (trivially) enumerable, but if we allow infinite sequences of As, it is not?
 
@solisoc depends on what you mean by "infinite"
clearly AAA.... is just one thing
 
My thinking is that the positive integers are already all sent to the finite sequences of As
There is nothing left to send to any infinite sequences of As
 
1:11 PM
oh well
send 1 to the infinite sequence
2 to A, 3 to AA, 4 to AAA, etc
 
gasp
 
by that logic, $\mathbb{N}_0$ wouldn't be enumerable either
 
So what is the ambiguity in "infinite"? (Also... how do I get MathJax to display?)
 
some infinities are bigger than others
as for mathjax, check tinyurl.com/cfqcvpc
 
Look in the top-right of the screen and you'll see some links to instructions on how to get Mathj-- dangit, ninja'd
 
1:20 PM
@TedShifrin is there an alternative way of motivating Chern-Weil theory without using Chern-Gauss-Bonnet? I know that's the historical way that Chern came up with it, but I was wondering if you knew of any intuition one could provide for why we'd even want to consider the Chern-Weil homomorphism? It seems like pure chance that it ends up being beautiful.
 
@Thorgott @LeakyNun so is there another infinite sequence of As that is not AAA...?
 
never mind
 
Depends on how you define infinite sequence
 
I just thought that was the issue
because otherwise you would just have one infinite sequence
and if you add one thing to a countable set then you still get a countable set
 
Sure, but you've piqued my interest now. Can you give an example of how "infinite" could be defined to give more than one infinite sequence of As?
 
1:27 PM
the set of real numbers is not countable
so now I have a sequence of As indexed by the real numbers
maybe you wanna call that an infinite sequence of As also
but then it won't be the same as the countable sequence "AAA..."
 
Ah cool, good point
I think in the context I'm considering that would be begging the question
 
One big set theory result is that, no matter how many elements a set contains, even if it is infinite, it's power set always contains far more elements.
 
The broader context, that is; obviously in answer to the question I posed above you're quite correct
 
So, from that, you immediately can define infinitely many "sizes of infinity"
 
I'm struggling to find the answer to this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3485394/…
Anyone can help?
 
1:37 PM
Are you asking about how to derive the Inverse Function Theorem from the Implicit Function Theorem?
 
yes, starting from that particular statement of the theorem
possibly without the Jacobian
 
Thanks for your help @LeakyNun @Thorgott @Rithaniel
 
np
 
Any time (Hopefully my bringing up set theory didn't cause any confusion)
 
1:55 PM
@Shootforthemoon the usual idea is to apply the Implicit Function Thm. to the function $(x,y)\mapsto f(y)-x$
working that out would be a good exercise, probably
as for the Jacobian, that is integral to the Implicit Function Thm., so I don't see how you wanna make do without it
 
I'm gonna study it, saw it is defined when talking about a system of multivariable equations, so I thought it was not necessary for the case, but maybe it is implicitly present even there
@Thorgott Thanks, I'll follow your suggestion
 
@LeakyNun I am not sure how good of an idea it is to call $(a_i)_{i\in\mathbb R}$ a "sequence".
It's certainly ordered, but there is no concept of "successor".
 
@anakhro I didn't want to introduce $\omega_1$
 
@Balarka @Soham https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EqAtk5D1R1Y

This is unbelievable
 
@Thorgott Sry, in this case we should apply the thm in order to find the existence of y=g(x), right?
 
2:12 PM
yes
 
I fixed $F(x,y)=f(y)-x$, but don't see how I could verify that $F_y$ is different from zero for every $(x,y)=(f(y),y)$
 
the Inverse Function Theorem has assumptions, you should use those
 
@Shootforthemoon compute it
 
@Thorgott Oh, true, so I need to put this into my hypothesis
 
2:19 PM
I was trying to verify the assumptions of the theorem before applying it XD
 
definitely
i mean, clearly not every map is locally invertible, so you do need assumptions
 
I got that the implicit function is $y=g(f(y))$ for each $x=f(y)$ and that its derivative is $g'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(y)}$ @Thorgott
Is it correct?
 
2:35 PM
Why is $x^{2n}-x^n-1=0$
 
it's not in general?
I mean, for x=0 or x=1 it's clearly false
 
why are its roots always in terms of the golden ratio
I'm stymied
 
to get to the other side
 
consider the substitution t=x^n.
 
$t=x^n$
 
2:38 PM
what equation do you get in terms of t?
 
oh
you get $t^2-t-1=0$
 
right. and the roots of that are definitely related to the Golden ratio
 
Can you plot the integral of a function that doesn't have a closed form in elementary functions on wolfram alpha?
I'm trying to plot the integral from let's say 1 to $x$
 
i sorta doubt it
wolfram alpha isn't quite that sophisticated
what function do you have, though
I've got mathematica, so I could conceivably do some computations
 
2:53 PM
$\int_e^x \exp(1/\ln(t))~dt$
 
mmkay
 
by the way I'm manually doing
that log-log plot
 
just use desmos
 
on desmos
 
you may be better off doing that in wolfram alpha as the following differential equation:
 
2:54 PM
how can I use desmos?
 
let y(x) be that integral. then y(e) = 0 and y'(x) = e^(1/ln x)
 
@Semiclassical I pinged you yesterday did you get notify?
 
yes. but you didn't actually give a question.
 
@Semiclassical I gave
 
wow that's so cool
 
2:58 PM
Should I write it down ?
 
this one?
yesterday, by adesh mishra
If $\alpha, \beta, , \gamma and \delta $ be the eccentric angles of the four points of intersection of the ellipse and any circle, prove that $$ \alpha + \beta + \gamma +\delta$$ is an even multiple of $\pi$
 
Yeah
 
okay. where "eccentric angle" means "angle in the parametrization x=a cos t, y= b sin t" apparently
 
@Semiclassical I waited for you yesterday for too long
@Semiclassical yes
 
this seems unpleasant.
well, I say that
but it seems like it should boil down to the following fact: If the angle $\alpha$ is between 0 and pi/2, then the other angles are of the form $\pi-\alpha,\pi+\alpha,2\pi -\alpha$
 
3:02 PM
@Semiclassical what ? I didn't get you
 
suppose one of your intersections is at (x,y) in the first quadrant
then the following should also be intersections: (-x,y), (-x,-y), and (x,-y)
which have the angles so specified
 
Okay
 
and therefore when you add them together you get $\pi+(\pi-\alpha)+(\pi +\alpha)+(2\pi -\alpha) = 4\pi$
 
@Semiclassical How? How is the intersection of ellipse and circle is symmetrical?
 
I'm assuming that the ellipse is of the form x^2/a^2+y^2/b^2=1, but that seems safe since otherwise the parametrization x=a cos t, y=b sin t makes little sense
i mean, the picture you linked made that symmetry quite apparent
 
3:06 PM
Yes, we can of course use that form
Then?
 
So, here's an interesting thought: A sequence of random variables $\{X_i\}_{i\in I}$ where $X_1$ is a given distribution, $X_{2n}\sim\min\{X_{2n-1},X_{2n-1}\}$ for $n\geq 1$ and $X_{2n+1}\sim\max\{X_{2n},X_{2n}\}$ for $n\geq 1$. Is there a criteria for when this sequence converges in distribution? Does it ever converge?
 
I'm not sure what else you need. Your picture spells it out well enough.
If you've got an intersection whose eccentric angle is 10 degrees, what can you conclude about the other intersections?
just from looking at your diagram
 
@Semiclassical I'm not able to develop an intuition how the second intersection is gonna occur at an eccentric angle of $\pi -\alpha$
 
if there's an intersection at (x,y) in the first quadrant, where are the other intersections?
 
It can happen at any point in the second quadrant
 
3:12 PM
yeah, no
look at your diagram
what kind of symmetry do you have for your ellipse
 
@Semiclassical all four quarters are symmetrical, Am I right?
 
Can you say more about that? That's a bit too vague
 
all four quarters have same opening of angle (i.e. 90 degrees)
 
okay. what can you say about points on those four quarters?
e.g., if (x,y) is a point in the first quadrant
then what point does that correspond to in the second quadrant, by symmetry
 
Yes, there will be a point (-x,y)
 
3:19 PM
right. how about the other quadrants?
 
Yes, there will be points (-x,-y) and finally (x,-y)
 
right.
so, suppose there's an intersection between the circle and the ellipse at (x,y)
what happens at (-x,y) ?
 
Okay
@Semiclassical I'm not sure what will happen
 
If (x,y) in the first quadrant is on the circle and on the ellipse, what can we say about (-x,y) in the second quarant
Is (-x,y) also on the ellipse?
 
Well it's sure that (-x,y) will lie on the circle but can't say that it will lie on ellipse too
 
3:23 PM
Why not?
If x^2/a^2+y^2/b^2 =1, then what happens when you replace (x,y) with (-x,y)
 
Yes, I'm getting you
 
okay. So what can we say about (-x,y) ?
 
if (x,y) satisfies the equation $$\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2} =1$$ then surely (-x,y) will satisfy it too
You're great (one again)
if (x,y) satisfies the equation $$\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2} =1$$ then surely (-x,y) will satisfy it too
 
right.
 
You're great (one again)
 
3:26 PM
same for the circle, of course
 
so therefore (-x,y) will lie on both the circle and the ellipse, so it's also an intersection
 
YEAH
 
what about the other two quadrants?
we've done first and second quudrant so far
 
@Semiclassica I have got you. It's solved. You have thrashed the problem like some....
 
3:29 PM
it's really just a matter of that diagram
 
@Semiclassical The way Sally Bugs did to that man in The Irishman
 
you can do this more algebraically, though. suppose your circle is of the form $x^2+y^2 = R^2$ and the ellipse is $x^2/a^2+y^2/b^2=1$
 
okay
then?
 
you can solve that for $x,y$ to get...
$$x= \pm a\sqrt{\frac{R^2-b^2}{a^2-b^2}}, \qquad y=\pm b \sqrt{\frac{a^2-R^2}{a^2-b^2}}$$
under the assumption $a>R>b>0$
as such, there's four solutions with four different sign combinations
which corresponds directly to the four quadrants
 
4:06 PM
Consider the map $f : \Bbb R^2 \to \Bbb R^2$, $f(x, y) = (x^2 + y^2, 2xy)$, basically the realification of $f(z) = z^2$.
 
Wouldn't that be $x^2-y^2$?
 
Right
This has a rank $0$ isolated singularity at the origin. I want to perturb this somehow so that this has no rank $0$ singularities.
Maybe try $f_t(x, y) = (x^2 - y^2 + 2yt, 2xy)$
$Df_t = (2x, -2y + 2t|2y, 2x)$
 
@Thorgott At the end I got that the implicit function is $y=g(f(y))$ for each $x=f(y)$ and that its derivative is $g'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(y)}$, should it work?
 
So $\det Df_t = 4x^2 + 4y^2 - 4ty$
The zero locus is a circle
Does it have rank 1 along this circle? Maybe not
Of course it has, right? Let's just do $t = 1$. $Df_t = (2x, -2y + 2|2y, 2x)$. This matrix is never the zero matrix
@Thorgott This looks good right?
 
@Shootforthemoon I think you should end up with $f(g(x))=x$, if you went with the naming convention I suggested
@BalarkaSen Yes
 
4:20 PM
@Thorgott ok, thanks very much!
 
@Semiclassical My connection got broken that's why I couldn't reply to you. Thanks for helping me in a very elegant way.
 
So this means isolated complex singularities can be unravelled into circles worth of fold points
Let's try higher order maybe. $f(x, y) = (x^3 - 3xy^2, 3x^2y - y^3)$
 
The isolated complex singularities of? Surely not $z\mapsto z^2$
 
Yes, that
I perturbed the map a little bit such that the isolated rank $0$ singularity at the origin became a circle of fold points
Real perturbation, not holomorphic perturbation of course. Holomorphically isolated rank 0 singularities are the stable types
 
Are you using "singularity" to mean "critical point"?
 
4:32 PM
Yes, wherever the Jacobian is not invertible
Oh, this is interesting. If $f_t(x, y) = (x^3 - 3xy^2 + ty, 3x^2y - y^3)$, then $Df_t = (3x^2 - 3y^2, -6xy + t|6xy, 3x^2 - 3y^2)$, and $\det Df_{\varepsilon} = 0$ is a leminscate if $\varepsilon > 0$
That is no bueno
I guess it is possible to perturb a little more so that the two halves of the leminscate come off to give two circle's worth of fold points
 
Next higher power you get something like a lemniscate but with three things and I have no clue what that's called
 
Oh you checked?
I also like what happens if I do $z^3 + ty^2$ instead of $z^3 + ty$
There's an appearance of a cusp
At least assuming you perturb a little more so that the cusp comes off of the fold line a little
 
Nice!
 
I wonder if we get one more teardrop for each power
 
4:46 PM
We should
 
Ok, using higher powers of y with a factor of t gets weird
it's starting to look like a nuke
 
Lol
Hm, if I use $f_t(x, y) = (x^3 - 3xy^2 + ty, 3x^2y - y^3 + tx)$, then $\det Df_t = 0$ gives a circle.
That's what I want, a good manifold's worth of fold points
 
that's probably a better way then
this is $z^5+ty^4$
 
Nuts
 
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