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12:00 AM
This is what I was talking about, Leaky.
 
12:37 AM
Does anyone know the commands to get the direct product $\mathbb{Z}_5 \times \mathbb{Z}_5$ in GAP?
 
 
1 hour later…
1:38 AM
Missed the connection
 
@Mike :(
Is there another flight soon?
 
Found a kiosk and moved to another. I don't get anything but a sore throat from running across the airport, but at least I get home.
 
2:43 AM
How can I show if there is any action of $\mathbb{Q}$ on the set $\{a,b,c,d,e\}$ such that $\text{stab}(a)\neq \mathbb{Q}$?
 
What do you think?
 
as the action is not given, not getting how to treat $q\ast a=a$, to get the stabilizer. But, as $\mathbb{Q}$ is group under operation $+$, I think the operation need to be $+$, otherwise it will not satisfy the property $(q_1\cdot q_2)\ast a=q_1\ast(q_2\ast a)$, where "$\cdot$" is the group operation.
 
You don't know anything about the group action. (It doesn't make sense to say the action has to be $+$ on that set - they're letters! :) )
So, instead, you have to use two things, about what you do know. 1) The group involved is $\Bbb Q$. So think about what group-theoretic properties it satisfies.
2) What, precisely, is a group action? Do you know a way to phrase this in terms of symmetric groups?
 
@MikeMiller It's true :-) I am learning it first time.
@MikeMiller I know the foraml definition of action as defined in books, can you explain abstractly, which will help to think in different way?
 
2:58 AM
Hi does anyone know of any good texts on probability
 
@KenOno To be clear, I just meant, the person working on this problem doesn't know any details about the group action. Not you in particular. :)
 
basic stat
 
@KenOno Will you start by telling me your definition? I think maybe it would be better for me to figure out how to translate my idea into your setting, and then hint you towards that. I can tell you the original idea after you've solved the problem. :)
 
I'm interviewing w/ some quantitative trading funds and looking to improve my understanding of probability
I guess these firms focus a lot on probability for market making and what not
 
@SharathZotis Intro to prbability by Sheldon Ross
@MikeMiller $G$ is a group and $S$ be a set, we say "$G$ acts on $S$" if there is a function $G\times S\to S$
which satisfies two properties
 
3:03 AM
@KenOno are you referring to First Course in Probability, A or Introduction to Probability Models
seems they are both written by sheldon ross
 
Why isn't anyone helping me?
 
@MikeMiller (i) $e\ast s=s$, $s\in S$ and (ii) $(g_1\cdot g_2)\ast s=g_1\ast (g_2\ast s)$ , $g_1,g_2\in G$
 
@KenOno Okay, I think I've come up with the right hint. I'll suggest a lemma for you to prove. With this lemma, I believe that you will be able to solve the whole problem yourself. :)
Lemma: Let $G$ be a group and $S$ be a finite set. Let $a \in S$ be an element. Prove that $\text{Stab}(a)$ is a finite index subgroup of $G$, meaning that there are only finitely many cosets.
 
Does anyone know the commands to get the direct product $\mathbb{Z}_5 \times \mathbb{Z}_5$ in GAP?
 
@BuddhiniAngelika 1) I don't know the answer, or I probably would have earlier. 2) Nobody has an obligation to help you. I'm here to kill free time. 3) When you complain like that, that causes less interest, not more, as it makes me feel like you don't respect (2).
 
3:08 AM
No I'm sorry
 
Don't worry about it, I'm not actually offended. I have a tendency to phrase things rather strongly. I was just explaining my thoughts.
 
@MikeMiller Ok, I will try to prove it. Thank you :-)
 
I've seen much worse in here than your request.
 
@BuddhiniAngelika Just search online first. gap-system.org/Manuals/doc/ref/chap49_mj.html
 
I didn't mean as a complain. I was over worried by my question I think.
 
3:11 AM
Anyone have any experience in prop. trading ?
or quant trading
 
I did. And I thought I should input integer modulo 5 by giving the command ZmodnZ(5). But when I take the direct product of input of that it give an error.
I also tried giving input as Z(5) and GF(5), but then also I get the error
But I'll try more by searching
Thanks a lot, all
 
@BuddhiniAngelika the second line on Ken Ono's second link is the point.
"if one of the arguments is not a group, GAP returns a NoMethodFound error."
Following his first link I find ZmodnZ(k) returns a ring.
 
But then what can I do....
 
It looks like the command to get the cyclic group of order n is CyclicGroup(n).
I found that by searching "cyclic group GAP" and then ctrl+F-ing "cyclic" through the pages until I found a command that told me how to make a cyclic group.
 
3:18 AM
Yes but I wanted to have the elements as 0bar , 1bar, ...I wanted to study the output like that and compare with the output of a semidirect product that's why :)
 
Does orientation matter in fundamental theorem of calculus for analytic functions?
 
I no longer understand your question. Combined, we told you how to construct the product of two cyclic groups in GAP. You'll want to compare to your thing to this construction, as I'm not so sure you can input it a different way.
 
Thanks a lot, everyone
 
Orientation of the curve.
 
@user330477 Real analytic? And does "the fundamental theorem of calculus" mean "Green's theorem"?
 
3:21 AM
Yes, I will try in that way. Thank you very much. :)
 
complex analytic. Fundamental theorem is the one involving the primitive and same as the real case.
 
So you mean (essentially) Cauchy's integral theorem. Sure.
To integrate over a curve you need to know what direction you're going. (To integrate over the boundary, you need to know which is the end point and which is the beginning point.)
If you traverse the curve in the opposite direction the answer will be the negative of what you had.
From the theorem itself, if $\gamma$ goes from $a$ to $b$, the fundamental theorem says your integral is $F(b) - F(a)$. If you traverse it in the opposite direction, your integral is $F(a) - F(b)$.
 
So the two integrals in this question are negative of one another, right? Evaluate the following integrals, for a path $\gamma$ that travels from $
-i\pi$ to $i\pi$
in the right half-plane, and also for a path $\gamma$ from $-i\pi$ to
$i\pi$
in the left half-plane.
 
Those both go from $-\pi$ to $\pi$. The orientation of a curve is specified by determining which point is the start and which is the end.
The answer is the same.
$i \pi$, but still.
 
So this fundamental theorem of calculus for analytic functions is independent of orientation as well.
 
3:34 AM
No. Orientation is the same as "Which is the point I start and end at?" Of course it's not independent of that. It negates if you swap them.
There's no orientation weirdness in this question. They're just asking you if you know the theorem that the integral of a path from $a$ to $b$ in a simply connected domain - like all of $\Bbb C$ - is independent of the choice of path.
 
are we not concerned with anticlockwise and clockwise orientation
 
That's something on a domain. You're working on a curve.
"anticlockwise" does not make sense on a curve. There is only forward and backward.
 
This makes sense now. Thank you so much.
 
You got it boss.
 
 
1 hour later…
4:43 AM
Hi @Ted
 
So that thing is called the godel boundary...
The ultimate limit of comprehension of humanity as a being

Using the language within the system, if there is a way to show that somewhere out there the existence of this boundary is a contradiction, then that should give us a way to destroy it, thus realising the holy grail of creativity: Creating something on the other side of the boundary, or creating sensation that is never experienced before
Looks like I finally have a way to define the range of the explosive generalisation operator: The Godel universe of human cognition
That's why it can grow so fast
 
5:10 AM
how well can SCP-055 handle double negation, I wonder...?
I wish that article is longer. Exposing to that may help refine counterfactual thinking thus allowing us to develop a more ready intuition of finding proof by contradiction to not obvious propositions...
I need to study more of these class of SCPs. It might lead to another cognitive breakthrough
 
5:40 AM
>
But that probably wouldn't work either. Eventually, this method would weed out everything that 55 isn't, leaving the reader with a clearer idea of what 55 is. And once the reader has gained this insight…..he or she forgets it. This leaves us with a lot of time and resources wasted on adding to the "great deal of scientific data has been recorded" that we can't actually use.
grrrrrrr
 
@Ted Okay, here we go. First I will set up the general story. The symbol $\Sigma$ is a surface and $M$ is a manifold. The boundary of $M$ is always written $Y$.
5
Atiyah-Patodi-Singer is a story about a first order elliptic differential operator acting on sections of vector bundles $\Gamma(E) \to \Gamma(F)$ over your manifold with boundary; for us it's a surface, $\Sigma$. The usual game is to let the function spaces involved be the Sobolev spaces $L^2_k$ for the codomain and $L^2_{k-1}$ for the codomain to get a Fredholm problem. But that's definitely not going to work without some boundary conditions, as we learn from Dirichlet!
To describe the boundary values, let me first make an assumption. First, the metric is of product type near the boundary; let $t$ be the (interior-pointing) normal coordinate. Now, as a general fact, the symbol of $D$ provides a fixed isomorphism $\sigma: E \to F$ so that, for a unique $t$-dependent family of self-adjoint elliptic operators $A_t$ on $E$, our operator $D$ takes the form $\sigma(d/dt + A_t)$. (More precisely, since the symbol is a map $T^*M \otimes E \to F$, we apply it to $dt$.)
Just like the metric, we should demand that $D$ is of product type near the boundary. This means, to us, that $A_t$ is independent of $t$. This will be true in many cases of geometric interest, as the metric was already of product type. We call it $A$. (I called it $L$ earlier, but now I'm trying to follow APS notation instead of the notation I'm used to - I needed to check some of these details.)
The boundary values appropriate to this setup are rather unusual. They are neither Dirichlet nor Neumann, and in fact non-local. Because $A$ is self-adjoint elliptic on a closed manifold, it has discrete real spectrum.
Let $P$ be the subspace of $L^2_{k-1/2}(Y, E)$ spanned by the eigenfunctions of $A$ with non-negative eigenvalue, and let $\Pi_P$ be the $L^2$ projection onto $P$. Our space of functions with boundary condition on $M$, written $L^2_k(M, E; P)$, is the space of $L^2_k$ functions $\phi$ so that $\Pi_P \phi\big|_{Y} = 0$; that is, the boundary value is spanned by the negative eigenvalues. One may similarly define the spaces of smooth functions with desired boundary values.
The Atiyah-Patodi-Singer theorem, finally, is that the map $C^\infty(M, E; P) \to C^\infty(M,F)$ is Fredholm, with index $(\int_M \alpha(D) ) - \frac{h + \eta(0)}{2}$. The first term is precisely the same integral that appears in the usual Atiyah-Singer theorem. The integer $h$ is defined as $\dim \ker A$. And $\eta(0)$ is that complicated spectral invariant of $(Y,A)$. I will describe it again if there is interest.
Let's understand this in the very special case of the Gauss-Bonnet theorem on $\Sigma$, a surface with boundary. I'll assume there's one boundary circle; the general story is not really different. The boundary being of product type means it is isometric to (some interval in) $\Bbb R \times S^1(r)$ for some radius $r$; I will set $r = 1$ for convenience, it's inconsequential. I want to point out right now that the assumption of product-type boundary implies that the geodesic curvature vanishes.
Now for us $E = (\Lambda^0 \oplus \Lambda^2)(T^*\Sigma)$, while $F = \Lambda^1(T^*\Sigma)$. The operator is $(d, d^*)$. In the coordinates $(t, \theta)$ given by $\Bbb R \times S^1$, and the trivialization $\Lambda^1 \cong \langle dt, d\theta \rangle$ and $\Lambda^2 \cong \langle dt \wedge d\theta\rangle$, this operator takes the form $$\begin{pmatrix}d/dt & d/d\theta \\ d/d\theta & -d/dt \end{pmatrix}.$$ Trust me on this - it's just a calculation of the Hodge star.
What's the symbol of this operator? Of course, written as a polynomial, it's $$\begin{pmatrix}t & \theta \\ \theta & -t \end{pmatrix}.$$ Because our basis is an orthonormal basis, plugging in $dt$ we get $$\begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix}.$$
After applying (the inverse of this) to $D$, we get $d/dt + \begin{pmatrix}0 & d/d\theta \\ -d/d\theta & 0 \end{pmatrix}.$ (This is self-adjoint, even though that minus sign might freak you out!) So that's our operator $A$. We may identify $A$ acting on sections of $\Bbb R^2$ as $-i d/d\theta$ acting on sections of $\Bbb C$. In particular, we may identify an eigenbasis over $\Bbb C$ with $e^{i n x}$ and the eigenvalues as $n$.
It's now easy to calculate that a basis of eigenvalues is given by $(\sin(nx), \cos(nx))$ and $(\cos(nx),-\sin(nx))$, both with eigenvalue $n$ (as well as the constants in each factor). All eigenspaces are 2-dimensional. Because the spectrum is symmetric across $0$, the $\eta$ function vanishes identically.
Let's now calculate the index by hand. Instead of doing the boundary value problem, the best way to calculate this this is to use another theorem in the Atiyah-Patodi-Singer paper, which explicitly identifies the kernel with the kernel of $D$ on $L^2$ sections over the "extended manifold" $\hat \Sigma$, which is $\Sigma$ with infinite cylindrical ends attached.
In fact this may as well be computed as the kernel of $D^*D$; something similar is true for the adjoint, but there's some trickiness in what we mean by "the adjoint", so let me say the final result.
The index of $D$ is the same as $\dim \ker_{\hat \Sigma} D^* D - \dim \ker_{\hat \Sigma} D D^* - h_\infty$. Here $h_\infty = \dim \ker A - h_\infty(E)$, where $h_\infty(E)$ is the dimension of the subspace of $\ker A$ which consists of limiting values of "extended $L^2$ sections of $E$" in the kernel of $D$", where an extended $L^2$ section is the sum of an $L^2$ section and a section which is constant on the ends at an element of $\ker A$.
Both of these operators are the Laplacian, just on different domains ($\Omega^0 \oplus \Omega^2$ vs $\Omega^1$). In particular, we may identify the kernel with harmonic forms. On a noncompact manifold with cylindrical ends, one finds that the $L^2$ harmonic forms are (this is another gorgeous theorem in the APS paper!) isomorphic to the image of $H^*_c$ in $H^*$. APS call this absolute cohomology.
It is of course easy to see that this is zero for our surface in degrees $0$ and $2$. Finally, $h_\infty = 0$, as constants are of course extended $L^2$ sections in the kernel of $D$, and their limiting values span $\ker A$.
Now our surface is $\Sigma_{g,1}$ for some $g$. There is an isomorphism $H^1_c \cong H^1(\Sigma_g) \cong \Bbb R^{2g}$, and $H^1(\Sigma_{g,1}) \cong \Bbb R^{2g}$; in fact, the inclusion map is an isomorphism. Whew! So $\dim\ker_{\hat \Sigma} D D^* = 2g$. So the index is, finally, $I(D) = -2g$. And the Euler characteristic is $\chi(\Sigma_{g,1}) = 1-2g$. Bguh?? What's going on here?
Well, what does the theorem actually say? It says that $I(D) = \int_\Sigma K_g dA - \frac{h + \eta(0)}{2}$ - remember that I said the integral is just the same as in the usual Atiyah-Singer theorem. We saw earlier that $\eta(0) = 0$ in this case. But that term $h$ is not zero! It was the same as $\dim \ker A$, which was $2$. So we get, finally: $\chi(\Sigma) - 1 = I(D) = \int_{\Sigma} K_g dA - 1,$ or rather, $$\chi(\Sigma) = \int_\Sigma K_g dA.$$
:)
The only thing that changes with more boundary circles is that $-1$ becomes $-n$.
 
6:26 AM
That is the longest post I ever seen on this chat that is not by me
3
 
I was worried someone would interrupt
 
I was way too busy reading about SCP-055 and antimeme entities to talk about maths
This whole antimeme thing can easily generate a host of mathematical objects and concepts by explosive generalisation. Will study these later. Perhaps such mindset priming might help me to better handle transcendental objects and prime numbers (which are pretty antimeme as semi classical pointed out)
(Actually not the prime numbers, he never said that)
 
 
2 hours later…
8:16 AM
The real number counterpart of antimemes are the indefinable reals
 
8:27 AM
The indefinable reals self censors itself because it will take a countably or even continuumly long sentence to pin them down
 
8:38 AM
-1
Q: about map of calculating witt group of rational field

Ninja hatori In this proof How they show that cartesian product map has an image in direct sum? I know that since u is unit in Q generates Witt group but then I don't know how argument runs? Somebody help me out? Also tell how $\delta_p$ $\epsilon$ = 0 for finitely many p implies it has image in direct sum?

 
Slereah + RHV=1 = PERFECTION
> SCP-3125 could be effectively neutralized using a machine proposed by the late Dr. Bartholomew Hughes called an irreality amplifier (see schematics, attachment 129). However, as well as requiring tremendous material resources, this machine could not be constructed without its builders understanding why it was being built, which would require an understanding of SCP-3125, which would prove fatal to the project.
irreality amplifier hmm...
 
8:59 AM
Uh oh, I got my math GRE score. 48%. What I get for not preparing sob
I wasn't applying for math programs anyways, mostly theoretical CS, but there were at least a few applied math programs on my list
sigh
 
 
3 hours later…
12:04 PM
Problem: Find a sequence of bounded functions $\{f_n\}$ on $[0,1]$ and a function $f :[0,1] \to \Bbb{R}$ such that $f_n \to f$ pointwise on $[0,1]$ but $f$ is not a bounded function.
Okay. I tried the following, none of which work: $f_n(x) = n1_{[0,\frac{1}{n}]}$, $f_n(x) = n1_{[\frac{1}{n},1]}$ for $n \ge 2$, $f_n(x) = n1_{[0,1-\frac{1}{n}]}$, and $f_n(x) = \frac{1}{x}1_{(\frac{1}{n},1]}$
I could use a hint.
 
12:28 PM
This is an exercise from Dummit-Foote, but in another exercise they say that $gHg^{-1}$ has same order as $H$ where H is subgroup of G. I find this in comparison with above pic's part b paradoxical.
Please help!
Is it the situation like, although $\Bbb N$ and $\Bbb Z$ have same cardinality, one is proper subset of other?
 
I feel like $f_n(x) = \frac{1}{x} 1_{(\frac{1}{n},1]}(x)$ is close to what I'm looking for, but I don't know how to correctly modify it.
The domains of those indicator functions aren't quite right.
 
I am thinking about some kind of piecemeal function like this:
So $\frac{1}{x}$ for $[\frac{1}{n},\infty)$ and $n$ otherwise
 
12:44 PM
Does $f_n(x) = \frac{1}{x} 1_{(0,1-\frac{1}{n}]}(x)$ for $n \ge 2$ work? Seems like it.
I think it does. I think I proved that it pointwise converges to $f(x) = 0$ for $x=0,1$ and $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$ for $x \in (0,1)$, which is certainly unbounded.
 
Can someone assist me with proof reading in ergodic theory?
 
@Silent what's your definition of normal subgroup?
 
A subgroup $N$ of $G$ is normal subgroup in G iff $gNg^{-1}=N$ for all $g\in G$.
 
This is even stronger than the exercise
If this is your definition then the exercise is just a consequence of the definition
 
1:00 PM
My doubt about exercise is: in the image i attached although we get $gNg^{-1}$ is subset of $N$, we know $gNg^{-1}\ne N$ and this is despite the fact that $gNg^{-1}$ and $N$ have same crdinality.
@ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
it says $gNg^{-1} \subseteq N$, not $gNg^{-1} \subsetneq N$
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg well it asks to show that $gNg^{-1} \subsetneq N$, if not this, then $g$ normalizes N.
 
1:18 PM
@Silent you're right that $gNg^{-1}$ and $N$ have the same cardinality, but that's not relevant here
 
@MatheinBoulomenos so its situation like $\Bbb N$ and $\Bbb Z$, where one is proper subset of other despite same cardinality, right?
 
thank you! :)
 
@Silent the important part is that you're not supposed to show that $gNg^{-1} \subset N \Rightarrow gNg^{-1}=N$ (that doesn't work, as the example from part (b) shows), you have to show that if $gNg^{-1} \subset N$ for all $g$, then $gNg^{-1}=N$ for all $g$
to put abstract from the situation, there's a difference between $\forall x: (P(x) \Rightarrow Q(x))$ and $(\forall x: P(x)) \Rightarrow (\forall x:Q(x))$, where $P$ and $Q$ are predicates
 
Thanks for emphasizing that!
@MatheinBoulomenos, I am learning abstract algebra from dummit and foote (and occasionally from Artin), but I find it very difficult to keep sooo many results and counterexamples in mind. I get often frustrated. How to tackle that?
 
1:25 PM
hmm, I'd say just keep going and don't be afraid to look things up if you don't remember. Sometimes knowing the proofs makes the result more memorable, sometimes you remember a result after you used it a lot in the exercises
 
ok, i will follow this advice
 
2:11 PM
0
Q: about set containment of valuation ring

Ninja hatoriGiven that $ u = \frac{a}{b} $ show that {$p \in \mathbb{Z}$ prime such that $v(u) \neq 0$} $\subsetneq$ {primes in factorization of a,b}. $v(u)$ is valuation over Q and we know that it is if $ u=p^n \frac{x}{y}$ then $v(u)=n$. how to show this set containment?

@ÍgjøgnumMeg please check it out?
 
Now that's 4D data I can read directly
(Technically, this is really a 3D surface data in 4D, as the 4th dimension are lines of constant height (thus visible as color when seen in the ana direction))
so of course reading this will not be too difficult, because there isn't really any nontrivial 4D information
 
 
1 hour later…
3:40 PM
How did a-(a^2) turn into a(1-a) ?
 
uh, factor the a out?
 
nvm
That was so obvious, no idea how I missed that
 
If I have some sum $S = \sum_{i=1}^{N}{x_i} where $x_i \leq 1$ and $x_j < x_i$, can I then put some bound on $x_N/S$? If all $x_i = 1$ then $x_N/S = 1/N$, can I say more than that? That is the upperbound I suppose right?
 
3:56 PM
hi @loch
 
@loch I think THIS should finally fall to the sketch I described to you, since you have a holomorphic tubular neighborhood.
 
4:16 PM
Hi guys, are the answers
120960,
72,
181440 for these questions?
I'm rusty with my combinatorics(or was never good in the first place)
 
4:28 PM
@loch I guess it would also follow from the collapse of the Grothendieck spectral sequence if you could show that the derived pushforward from $V$ to $\Bbb{CP}^1$ is concentrated in degree $0$?
Which I would hope is true from the fact that you can demand the fibers are Stein domains.
 
4:39 PM
Okay dang it Jason Starr now I don't get to look smart
 
5:34 PM
What is meant by the notation G(s) in "Let G be an abelian group. Show that G(s), s ∈ Z+ is a sub-group"
 
6:15 PM
@MikeMiller hmmm so we have a holomorphic tubular neighbourhood in the normal bundle, how does that give us an open set in $\mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^n$?
also hi @LeakyNun
 
@loch where can I find the proof of Bezout theorem by saying that it's like d lines intersecting e lines?
 
my immediate reaction is hartshorne ch 5
 
ok
 
but er
if you're happy to work over the complex numbers
 
it is chapter I in Hartshorne
 
6:19 PM
hm i have to think if that gives you something significantly easier
@user10354138 the proof in ch1 of Hartshorne isn't "d lines intersect e lines = de points" though
 
So, question about the terminology surrounding the hyperreal numbers...
If I remember right, the usual construction of the hyperreal numbers involves infinite sequences of real numbers. Consider the sequence S = 0, 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...
 
I don't think there's a "canonical" set of hyperreal numbers, except possibly R(ε)
 
A hyperreal number is defined as an equivalence class of such sequences, where the equivalence relation involves an ultrafilter.
So S, here, corresponds to a hyperreal number which is infinitesimally smaller than 1.
 
@LeakyNun anyway i think you should be able to find a proof of similar flavour in an easier book rel. to hartshorne - but i dont know one off the top of my head
 
So, given a sequence S of real numbers, what do you call the hyperreal number which corresponds to the sequence?
Is it just called... "the hyperreal number which corresponds to the sequence"?
If the sequence has a limit, then the corresponding hyperreal number is either equal to or infinitesimally different from that limit.
It's not called the ultralimit of the sequence, is it? I think that's something different.
 
6:58 PM
If it isn't it should be
But nah I think it's just the equivalence class of the sequence
 
7:16 PM
I don't understand why people don't take $\Bbb R(\varepsilon)$ as the canonical hyperreals
 
To spite you
:P
 
Because that doesn't actually satisfy the properties we want the hyperreals to have
Also, $e^\varepsilon$ isn't in $\Bbb R(\varepsilon)$ but $e^x$ is defined everywhere in the hyperreals
 
@AkivaWeinberger I don't think you can define $\exp x$ in first order logic
@AkivaWeinberger such as?
 
The transfer property
 
what is it?
 
7:19 PM
For every function $f:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ there exists a function $f^*:\Bbb R^*\to\Bbb R^*$ that restricts to $f$ on the reals and such that every first order statement about $f$ remains true about $f^*$
Which is why $\exp$ makes sense on the hyperreals, incidentally
You can extend it because you can extend anything
$f^*([a_0,a_1,\dots])$ is defined to be $[f(a_0),f(a_1),\dots]$ (where by $[a_0,a_1,\dots]$ I mean the equivalence class of that sequence under the ultrafilter)
 
sup nerdos
 
Inf nerds
 
howdy Eric, Alessandro
 
@Ted this grad student who snuck into my reading course on GH is obsessed w hodge theory
@Akiva did u die from the 40 mile walk
 
oh oh
I was hoping you'd learn more geometry and less analysis.
 
7:32 PM
me too :(
 
How did he sneak in?
 
she snuck in by actually showing up to the meetings
i figure it aint that bad
 
Well, you can keep doing stuff "irregardless"
 
@MikeM: Thanks for the textbook you wrote. I will need an hour to read it carefully.
 
7:34 PM
Hey guys!
 
Hi Demonark
 
@Daminark have you had any luck writing the nsf research proposal
it is like the worst nightmare of my life lol
 
I haven't had the chance to start, I'm gonna bash out this rep theory pset and then start on it today
 
You mean you're not writing it on stochastic analysis, Eric? :D runs away quickly
 
But yeah the research proposal is such nonsense. I'm a 4th year undergrad, I don't know what general area of math I'm gonna pursue in grad school, much less specific research problems that I'll tackle
 
7:36 PM
u should ask one of ur letter writers to help you out, soug is helping me on mine
 
Chances are the best thing to do is choose something you're interested in and force it to have some applications
 
@TedShifrin lmao i actually just am
 
oh, I don't think you should
 
just bc my advisor on that stuff is the one who's around to help me write it
i wanted to ask neves for help to write something geometric-y up but he's too busy
so i dont rlly know what else to do
not stochastic, necessarily, PDE analysis tho
 
Emerton did tell me to tell him whether I'd be doing it, just told him now that I will, so hopefully he has some tips. Chances are I'll do something number theoretic and probably relate it to crypto
 
7:37 PM
Don't mislead the admissions committees ... if you want to do geometric analysis or Bryant stuff, you should talk about a few specific problems you've sunk your teeth into and that captured your interest. Don't write on stuff you have no interest in pursuing.
PDE analysis is fine.
Since you're actually interested in that.
 
PDE analysis i do actually have interest in so i figured that be ok
ya
 
You have to write a research proposal now @Dami?!
 
Yeah, NSF is weird. I guess they're probably less concerned with wanting you to specialize now so much as, do you know how to write a decent grant proposal?
 
i think really it's meant to be for physical science kiddies who have an easier time legit writing this stuff
 
I think it's also OK to write in some depth on some things you've thought about deeply and that interested you. I don't think you're expected to write a research proposal like someone finishing a PhD would write.
If you've contemplated connections in mathematics in some depth, and can weave a story about that, I think that's sorta cool too.
You just want to show some mastery and some depth of interest.
 
7:40 PM
i think there's a personal interest statement u also have to write
that will be much less painful i think since ive been basically trying to workshop that for a while now
 
OK ...
 
it's ok i guess it'll all be over relatively soon
 
Also prob gonna retake the GRE :/
 
Don't you have to register like a month in advance?
 
I already registered
Just in case
 
7:43 PM
Oh.
Gotcha.
 
stupid how hard it is to find a test center in the same state
 
It's just that I was kinda asking professors around whether they thought it was worth it, given my score, to actually retake instead of just cancelling the registration
Yeah, I have to go to Indiana for that, which is annoying as hell
 
This is why I told UGA peeps to take it the spring before.
 
@EricSilva I'll have to check
 
i think there was only one center in illinois for the subject which is utterly insane
lmao @Akiva
 
7:45 PM
But yeah talking around to professors, it seems the consensus is that this is an okay score, but it's not optimal/might bite at sufficiently competitive places. Matt in particular feels like it's probably the weakest part of the application, so given the opportunity to possibly bump it up, I should go for it.
 
I think there's been someone impersonating DogAteMy.
That's sorta how I felt, Demonark. I tried to say it nicely.
 
i had the worst time w these subject tests
third time is the charm i guess
 
At least this time it'll be less stressful since if worst comes to worst the September one is probably good enough for most places (e.g. Cornell's site says that "most successful students get 700+, and they're top 20, so hopefully at places of similar caliber it'll be aight)
First time around I was legit panicking
 
@MikeM: So you cannot resurrect the general G-B for surfaces (or in general?) because of the product metric near the boundary condition.
 
@Daminark i keep scoring 90th percentile + kind of scores on my practice tests (under as close to test conditions as i can get) but then come test day random bs keeps happening like ill get ill and have to walk out or some dude keeps interrupting the test
it's madness im cursed
 
7:51 PM
Please tell me you're taking the test at center in Illinois. Don't wanna risk being affected by your curse due to proximity
 
too bad so sad
get cursed punk
 
:'(
 
you mean not taking ?
 
Well, I'm taking it in Indiana, so I was hoping Eric was doing it in Illinois
 
oh, right, I was sloppy. Gotcha.
 
7:53 PM
I just found out that you actually don't need inverses to show that every subgroup of Z is cyclic
what I mean is that every submonoid of N is monogenerated as well
 
I only think about it in terms of the division algorithm. I suppose that uses inverses.
 
@Daminark ima pawn off my curse onto u
get redy
 
wait
 
So is it a 5-hour bus journey to the place in Indiana?
 
nvm, forget what I said
 
7:55 PM
nah i think it's like an hour?
 
(take the submonoid generated by 3 and 4)
 
northern indiana is basically chicagoland area
 
yeah, like Gary
 
although i have no idea where it is now that i ponder it
 
quietly suggests one acquire an idea
 
7:56 PM
my partner is going so im hitching a ride with her
so i can shirk responsibility
 
oh
you gonna let Demonark go in the trunk?
 
Oh snap that's a great idea actually
 
he has 2 walk
 
I did my best, Demonark.
 
i cant have myself getting recursed after sending it his way
 
7:57 PM
And thank you for that, I guess I have run out of options
 
LOL
 
But yeah my dad actually said the best thing to do is to spend a night there instead of waking up at 5:30, which is probably true though I don't know if I feel too happy about that because finances
 
Depends how far it is and how hectic the trip is.
I remember that @Astyx went a third of the way across France to take some tests.
 
@EricSilva @Daminark good luck with all the testing/application/proposal stuff
 
ty friend
 
7:59 PM
@Mathein thanks fam. Also hey!
 
Hi everyone
 
hi @Mathein
 
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