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12:00 AM
it has dimension 1, but it has dimension 2?
 
oh
ignore my but yes
i was trying to say you're probably thinking the right thing, just mixing up how things are indexed
lol
anyway it has dimension 1
it is a dedekind domain
 
what is the dimension of a field?
 
in fact it is a pid
 
@Mathein I suggest approaching it as it becomes relevant to you instead of jumping into it. It will be more pleasant that way
 
12:01 AM
(in fact it is an euclidean domain)
 
@MikeMiller that's a good approach
 
Certainly for instance you could learn Riemann surfaces first and then use some of the techniques and theorems you saw as a jumping off point
 
ok so you guys are basically forcing me to use $\Bbb Z[X]$
$(X-1)$ is prime right
$0 \subsetneq (X-1) \subsetneq (X-1,2)$
these are all prime right
 
you can just mod out by $(X-1)$
and see that you get an integral domain
($\mathbb{Z}$)
 
brilliant
so $2$ is not invertible in $\Bbb Z[X]/(X-1)$
 
12:03 AM
so it's also not maximal because it's not a field
i think you should avoid saying an element is invertible in a prime ideal - that seems confusing
 
now we know that I can define the function $\frac12$ on a neighbourhood of $(X-1)$
what is the codomain?
I can define it in $D(2)$ right
the structure sheaf associates $D(2)$ to the ring $\Bbb Z[X]_{(2)}$
of which $\frac12$ is an element
so what does this function send $(X-1)$ to?
 
I am perplexed by something: I recently was able to replicate past, published results - trajectories of a rigid body, in a co-rotating coordinate system. The rotating frames are positioned on the symmetrical body such that its geometric center, as well as its center of mass (by assumption) are at the origin of these frames. So, I compute the laboratory frame trajectories by using some transformation equations - nothing crazy hard.
Everything checks out, my solutions are near-identical to the paper's. Now, here's what's puzzling: I go to print out the body-frame coordinates, and they aren't ... identically zero or even numerically close to zero. Shouldn't the rotating frames give body-frame coordinates of (0,0) in this quasi-2D model?
 
This feels like a physics question more than math
Certainly I can't help
 
yes $\frac{1}{2}$ is a regular function on $D(2)$ - so you can think of $\frac{1}{2}$ mapping prime ideals of $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}[X]_{(2)}$ to - uh - stuff.

and it maps the prime ideal $(X-1) \mathbb{Z}[X]_{(2)}$ to $\frac{1}{2}$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{(2)}$
 
I don't like stuff :(
 
12:10 AM
Here is a nice observation from Donaldson's book: a manifold with an Atlas and transition functions with Jac = 1 is the same thing as a manifold with volume form
Clear enough but still pleasant
 
so should I say that the codomain for each $\mathfrak p$ is $\operatorname{Quot}(A/\mathfrak p)$?
 
yeah, that's nice
 
btw this is called a dependent function
 
Why do we need to renormalise a solution to PDE?
 
well i mean when you think of $3$ as a function on $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$, it's not entirely clear what your codomain is supposed to be anyway (i guess you can take it as something like the disjoint union of their quotients - but i don't really like that since it's not as nice as in the classical case)

but maybe there's a better way of saying this hmm
 
12:12 AM
why are groups called groups?
 
@geocalc33 mathematicians invented groups so that they could define "the group with one element", so that it makes sense for them to say "I have a group of friends"
3
 
haha
 
@loch I accept dependent functions, you know
the codomain depends on the input
so I would say that for each $\mathfrak p$, the codomain is (something dependent on $\mathfrak p$)
 
that actually formalizes how we think of that, I guess. The values at different points live in different fields
 
why are groups rich?
 
12:15 AM
What is a group with one element?
 
right, that's how you would translate a dependent function to ZFC
@MatheinBoulomenos what do you think about my question?
was denkst du uber meine Frage?
 
What is a group with one element?
 
@geocalc33 $\{1\}$ is a group under multiplication
@LeakyNun what is the question exactly?
 
@MatheinBoulomenos what is the codomain of the function $\frac13$ defined on $D(3) \subseteq \operatorname{Spec}(\Bbb Z[X])$?
 
you're taking "function" too literally, that's more an analogy I think
 
12:19 AM
then what's the right way to think about it?
 
@LeakyNun maybe here's a nicer way of thinking about this. Thinking of $3$ as a function on $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$, you can also think of the map $\mathbb{Z}[x] \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}$ mapping $x\mapsto 3$.

This induces a map $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}[x]$.

If you base change (i.e. tensor) to $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$ downstairs, you get $\mathbb{F}_p$ upstairs, i.e. a map $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{F}_p \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{F}_p[x]$
 
@LeakyNun I like that dependent function thing actually
 
I think ZFC just needs some improvement
 
ok i like this more - since this is also how you can think of an element on e.g. $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ with $x+y$ giving a map from $\mathbb{A}^2_{\mathbb{C}}$ to $\mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{C}}$, by considering the $\mathbb{C}$-algebra map mapping $\mathbb{C}[t] \rightarrow \mathbb{C}[x,y]$ mapping $t\mapsto x+y$.
 
type theory is much better though
I operate in type theory
 
12:22 AM
What I am wondering is, why do we need to define the metric on the tangent space for a Riemannian manifold?
Can't I just to define a metric on the atlas?
That would make intuitively more sense.
 
@loch well I still have the same question
4 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@MatheinBoulomenos what is the codomain of the function $\frac13$ defined on $D(3) \subseteq \operatorname{Spec}(\Bbb Z[X])$?
 
I still stand by my answer that you're taking an analogy too literally
 
it's what you said - but i think what i said above is better (with $3$ on $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$) - then you can just do this to your example
 
it's a function where at different points you have a different codomain
 
but what is the codomain?
at, say, the point $(X+1)$?
 
12:24 AM
that's not a closed point
 
why does it matter?
 
but it's always the fraction field of the quotient ring, at every prime
 
so I should only think about the maximal ideals?
is that what you mean?
 
no, I was just thinking about the analogy with $\Bbb C[z_1, \dots, z_n]$
only closed points are actual points, non-closed points are subvarieties
 
seeing that you cannot define $\frac{1}{3}$ when you mod $X+1$ - you should realise that you shouldn't be thinking of $\frac{1}{3}$ as a function defined on the prime ideal $(X+1)$ of $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}[X]$, but on the prime ideal $(X+1) \mathbb{Z}_2[X]$ of $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}_2[X]$ lol
 
12:27 AM
where did that come from
 
@LeakyNun the codomain is the disjoint union over $\kappa(\mathfrak{p})$ for all primes
 
@MatheinBoulomenos not just all maximals?
 
no, forget about the maximal thing
 
ok
 
I just thought it was weird to evaluate at a subvariety for a moment
 
12:28 AM
i still think what i said with the example $3$ on $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$ is better - because you're not defining a set-theoretic function from a scheme to a union of fields
 
what is that curly line again?
 
lol which curly line are you talking about
 
there's only one
 
it's about ramification of $\Bbb{Z} \to \Bbb{Z}[i]$
 
how should I think of it?
I don't think I'm that familiar with ramification
 
12:31 AM
it's a picture of $V(x^2+1)\cong \operatorname{Spec}(\Bbb Z[i])$
 
and what's $V$?
oh, that $V$
 
lol, you gave a presentation on local langlands
 
:)
I mean, I don't know how to visualize it in my head
 
you need to study ramification very carefully even for LCFT
anyway
So we have a map $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$, you can look at the fibers of that map, that will be the intersections of that curvy line with the vertical lines
I didn't just mean ramification
I meant factorization
there are some primes $p$ such that there are two primes above it
e.g. $5$, where you have $2+i$ and $2-i$
there are some primes $p$ where you have only one prime above it, like $3$
but $2$ is special, because it's ramified
it's like that $z \mapsto z^n$ thing again
 
the intuition here is $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}[X]$ is 2-dimensional, so it looks like a surface

you're looking at how this surface fibres over the curve $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$ a curve, - so the vertical lines denote the fibres ("preimage") of the primes $(2), (3), \ldots$ in the map $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[X] \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}$

the bottom horizontal line is a copy of $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}$ in $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[X]$, i.e. the subscheme defined by the ideal $(X)$ (hence you also see the generic point of this guy "on the ri
 
12:36 AM
$\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$ is a ramified covering basically
 
I heard covering
 
ramified covering!, but $\mathrm{Spec}(2^{-\Bbb N} \Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(2^{-\Bbb N} \Bbb{Z})$ is a proper covering, because you throw away the only ramification point
(unless I'm mistaken, that should be an étale morphism)
 
i hab viel zulernn
 
@LeakyNun I recommend the section one one-dimensional schemes in Neukirch
it won't explain $\Bbb{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[x])$, but it will explain the morphism $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$
from a geometric PoV
the second elements in the intersections of the curvy line and the vertical lines comes from the factorization of $x^2+1$ mod $p$ actually
 
oh and just another point on viewing an element of the ring as a function thing

even in the classical AG case, where e.g. you view $x+y$ as associating each maximal ideal $\mathfrak{p}$ in $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ to something in $\mathbb{C}$,
apriori you're "codomain" is disjoint union of a bunch of $\mathbb{C}$'s

but you would like to identify these $\mathbb{C}$'s together but apriori you can't do that - and really the way to view this, i think, is from what i was saying earlier (as a map to $\mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{C}}$
 
12:41 AM
Why are groups rich?
 
@LeakyNun $x^2+1=(x+2)(x+3)$ mod 5, that's why those points in the intersection are $(5,x+2)$ and $(5,x+3)$
oh I need to talk more about the inert points. so at $3$ for example, you have only one prime above $3$ in $\Bbb{Z}[i]$ (that's ANT language), which means one element in the fiber of $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$ (more geometric), but you should think of it as a "double point" because the residue field extension $\Bbb{Z}/(3) \to \Bbb{Z}[i]/(3)$ has degree 2
 
@loch should I just consider the maximal ideals for that function thing?
 
that's why he's drawing it as if the curvy line corresponding to $X^2+1$ intersects the line corresponding to $3$ twice, although there's only one point in the fiber
 
@MatheinBoulomenos I see no intersection at all
the curvy line passed through the 3-line
 
@LeakyNun there is
$(3,X^2+1)$
 
12:46 AM
where?
 
he isn't drawing it
 
oh that isn't depicted then
oh
 
but there's a double interesction point
 
that's e or f?
 
I think he meant to draw that it intersects twice at the same point
 
12:47 AM
im saying you should view giving an element of the ring $\mathbb{C}[X,Y]$ as giving a map $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{C}[X,Y] \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{C}[T] = \mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{C}}$

then you have an honest-to-god map of schemes and you can talk about wtv you want lol
 
@loch but I'm not satisfied with $\Bbb C[X,Y]$
 
@LeakyNun f
 
I want the function $\frac1X$
 
e is the ramification
the only thing that has e>1 here is 2
 
so in 2 we have e=2 and f=1
in 3 we have e=1 and f=2?
 
12:48 AM
yeah
 
then $\frac{1}{X}$ gives a map of schemes $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{C}[X,Y]_{X} \rightarrow \mathbb{A}^1$
 
in 5?
 
and at 5 we have e=1 f=1 g=2
 
where did g come from
what is g
 
there are two primes above 5
the number of primes above a point
 
12:48 AM
does it occur in LCFT?
 
ANT?
 
for sure
 
ok
@loch but I like the geometrical picture
 
but that is the geometric picture!
 
12:50 AM
in garbological cohomology for derived nerds, Jun 4 at 17:22, by MatheinBoulomenos
@BalarkaSen sorry, if I'm annoying you with my ANT/ramification stuff, you can just say it.
There's another way to characterize ramification in the Galois/normal setting.
Suppose $L/K$ is a Galois extension of number fields (you can actually show that this is equivalent to the the action of $\operatorname{Aut}_K(L)$ on the fibers of the induced map $p:\operatorname{Spec}(\mathcal{O}_L) \to \operatorname{Spec}(\mathcal{O}_K)$ being transitive, just like for covering spaces)
Then for every $\mathfrak{p} \in \operatorname{Spec}(\mathcal{O}_K)$, we have a (transitive) action of $\operatorname{G
 
@loch ok then, but what about $\Bbb Z[X]$?
 
Then $\frac{1}{X}$ defines a map from $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[X]_{X} \rightarrow \mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{Z}}$
 
@LeakyNun all horizontal lines of which there are only drawn two, one curvy and one straight correspond to closed points in $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Q}[x])$ by the way
 
and $\frac13$?
 
same
but localising $3$ insted of $X$
 
12:52 AM
where does it send $(X+1)$ to?
@MatheinBoulomenos cool
I think we should look at $\Bbb Q[X]$
 
"$(X+1)$" is not a prime ideal of $\mathbb{Z}[X]_3$..

but anyway you have a map $\mathbb{Z}[T] \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}[X]_3$ and you can just pullback the prime ideal $(X+1)\mathbb{Z}[X]_3$
that is the image of the prime ideal

but there is more data to a map of schemes than just the topological map
 
I mean
 
if you want to recover how to think of $\frac{1}{3}$ as taking the values they ought to take when you're thinking about residue fields :

let's say $\mathbb{Z}$ for simplicity because im probably going to bed soon after this lol

you have a map $\operatorname{Spec} 3^{-1}\mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[T]$ defined by mapping $T\mapsto 3^{-1}$
Now for any prime $p$ not equal to $3$, you want to say the value of $\frac{1}{3}$ at this point is $3^{-1}$ mod $p$

here's how you can view this
consider the base change $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{F}_p[T] \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{Z}[T]$
note that $3^{-1}\mathbb{Z} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}[T]} \mathbb{F}_p[T] = \mathbb{F}_p$
so you have a map $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{F}_p \rightarrow \operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{F}_p[T]$ induced by $\frac{1}{3}$
and this is saying you're taking a $\mathbb{F}_p$-rational point of $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{F}_p[T]$
(similar to the stuff you learnt about functor of points on $GL_n$ for example)
 
@LeakyNun it's totally weird that you did local langlands before studying the map $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[i]) \to \mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$ in some detail
 
but anyway the ring map $ \mathbb{F}_p[T] \rightarrow \mathbb{F}_p$ maps $T$ to $3^{-1}$ mod $p$
so you can recover what you expected before
 
1:01 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos i noe rite
 
but now you're viewing all these stuff packaged as a map to $\mathbb{A}^1$
 
(random rambling) $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z})$ is like the Riemann sphere, it has genus 0 as the unique number field (using the notion of genus as in Neukirch) and every number field is a ramified covering like that
 
hmm
 
it's not proper though :(
 
ok so just how amazing is the fact that we have a function called $\frac13$ sending $5\Bbb Z$ to $2+5\Bbb Z$ and $7\Bbb Z$ to $5+7\Bbb Z$ and all that
this is just so beautiful
 
1:09 AM
it is pretty cool
anyway goodnight all
 
goodnight @loch
@LeakyNun so you find inversion mod p amazing? :P
 
I find the function amazing
goodnight @loch
 
@LeakyNun if $K/\Bbb{Q}$ is a number field and why suppose that it has a nice integral basis $\Bbb{Z}[\alpha]$, then let $f$ the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$. Then $V(f)$ is a curvy line there like $V(x^2+1)$ and what you study a lot in basic ANT is how that curvy line intersects the vertical lines
that's the e,f,g stuff
 
"and why"?
I see
 
because it gives information about primes
do you know the two-squares thing and $\Bbb{Z}[i]$?
 
1:15 AM
I think you told me
 
If you take $\alpha \in \overline{\Bbb Z}$ (integral closure of $\Bbb Z$ in the algebraic closure of \Bbb{Q}$, then the minimal polynomial of that will still give you a curvy line in that picture
but it won't be smooth
there will be singularities
or no, singularity is the wrong word
 
can the identity of a group be y=x
 
hmm no, singularity is right
 
@MatheinBoulomenos what is the singularity of say $X^3-X+1$?
 
why is $\Bbb Z[\alpha]$ where $\alpha$ is a root of that not integrally closed?
this has discriminant -23 which is square-free so $\Bbb{Z}[\alpha]$ is integrally closed where $\alpha$ is a root of that
 
1:21 AM
what are we talking about
 
I'm talking about other points that Mumford didn't draw
extending the picture
 
right, so there should be a line corresponding to $X^3-X+1$?
 
yes, but I'm saying that it is smooth
 
(should we still think of $X^2+1$ as a line, or as two lines?)
 
one line
 
1:23 AM
a line intersecting things as two points?
 
I think the bending in $2$ gives the wrong intuition
 
it's a line that is a two-sheeted covering of another line
 
that somehow it goes to 2 and then go back
instead of it being one single line
 
hmm, yeah meaybe two lines is better you're right
 
1:24 AM
heh
 
so a non-smooth line would be corresponding to $x^2+4$, because $\Bbb{Z}[2i]$ is not integrally closed
here you have non-unique factorization even on the ideal level
$(2)(2)=(2i)(2i)$, but $(2i) \neq (2)$
 
:o
 
$2$ is a singularity there and it's also ramified, so it should look like a cusp, I think
you can also see this in the stalks
 
what stalk
 
I mean stalks in $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb{Z}[2i])$
oops
the stalks of $\Bbb{Z}[i]$ are always DVRs (or $\Bbb{Q}(i)$ at the generic point), but the stalk of $\Bbb{Z}[2i]$ at $(2)$ is not
 
1:30 AM
:o
 
Oh cool, I just learned that in fact any discrete subgroup of $PSL_2(\Bbb R)$ induces a Riemann-surface structure on the quotient. The point is the stabilizer of a point is finite cyclic and $\Bbb C/(\Bbb Z/n) \cong \Bbb C$
So you get marked points with branching data as well
But it is indeed still a complex manifold
 
does this work with $\Bbb H$ and $PSL_2(\Bbb R)^+$ as well?
 
Sorry, that's really what I meant to say
When I said $\Bbb C$ above I really meant a little disc with small radius
Just constructing charts when when we have stabilized
 
So we can take a normal subgroup $N$ of $\Gamma(1)$ such that the quotient is the monster group and then we get a ramified covering $N\backslash \Bbb{H} \to \Gamma(1) \backslash \Bbb{H}$ with deck transformation group the monster group
 
is the identity function of a group always y=x when using the binary operation of composition as the group operation?
 
1:38 AM
Do deck transformations work as well when the covering is ramified?
 
hmm, good point
maybe deck transformation on the unramified part?
but when you have a ramified covering of the sphere, then the Galois group of the function field extension, if that's Galois should correspond to something
maybe we need to compactify first
say you have torus $\Bbb C/\Lambda$ for some lattice and you take the Weierstraß $\wp: \Bbb{C}/\Lambda \to \overline{\Bbb{C}}$, then you should have some kind of holomorphic automorphism of the torus such that composing with that leaves $\wp$ invariant, but composing $\wp'$ with it gives $-\wp'$
I always thought that should be some kind of a deck transformation of the ramified covering, but I may be wrong
that's just induced by $z \mapsto -z$!
$\wp$ is even and $\wp'$ is odd
so that would be the deck transformation group of that ramified covering
if it actually works as expected with quotienting by group actions I'm not sure
@MikeMiller that's just my treating Riemann surfaces very algebraically :P
 
Ah of course it works well with quotient groups, very smart
I really like this book of Donaldson. The reason I backed off at first is that his motivation is largely given by Riemann surfaces as solutions to 2-d algebraic equations, but then more generally to solutions of differential equations. And then he goes into some detail about the latter. That would be less exciting to you
 
But his exposition is quite clean. Idk, I just sorta like it. Maybe if there are particularly good chapters I will recommend those
 
1:53 AM
okay, the thing is I really don't know anything differential equations, partial or ordinary
I like the differential equation for $\wp$ because it shows how a torus is a "quadratic extensions" of the sphere
 
Yeah that is pretty cool. I bet he's gonna get into elliptic functions later and K don't know anything about those
 
we did that in our second course on single complex variable and it's pretty nice
 
are elementary abelian groups interesting or not really
 
but with Riemann surfaces, all the theorems about them are probably special cases
 
@MikeMiller the latter sounds more interesting to me tbh
though it might be far more tedious in practice
 
2:12 AM
Yes, you specifically would love this book
 
Today I have met someone who is at legit the most insane crank ever m
 
is there a name for a group in which each element has the same inverse?
 
The trivial group
 
what about a group that has multiple elements that all have the same inverse
 
That property is called "Not a group"
 
2:24 AM
ohh
 
lol
 
You can prove both of these if you play with definitions
 
@Daminark You met him in person?
 
Please some one needs to vote me up so that I have exactly $4^3$ 61 is slowly killing me
no wait vote one up and one down
 
@MikeMiller that group i was explaining to you before,, to get every inverse element you take the reciprocal of every element
 
2:41 AM
@geocalc33 If $g^{-1}=h^{-1}$ what can you say about $g,h$?
 
Yup @Alex, it was quite the time. Took 3 hours before I could finally shake him off, and trying not to laugh was kinda hard
 
@Daminark What was his crankery about?
 
He started with some kinda metric on N which wasn't exactly what you thought it was, somehow this being "topologically equivalent" to R^n for every n would just revolutionize all of math. Said it'd knock out all 7 millennium problems, etc
 
[Random]
i am thinking about having a group as an algebraic element of another ring, and said ring is bizarre such that some of these elements are themselves groups and some are just monoids
I wonder what kind of "axioms of compatibility" I need to ensure interaction between the group element and the monoid element in the ring to be consistent
meanwhile, I am guessing the trivial object will be the identity element
 
Do you mean integral element in a ring extension?
Or are you using algebraic non-mathematically etc
 
2:55 AM
i am currently thinking about a ring whose elements are monoids or groups
so some kind of binary operation is needed to mix these two kinds of elements within the ring together
so what I suspect it will happen is when we have group + monoid, we should get monoid most of the time
and then we might have group + group = monoid or group, monoid + monoid = monoid
Multiplication is a bit tricky though
 
You should really go about fixing a set of groups, and giving the set magma,semigroup, monoid structure etc. What do you want as an inverse?
Talking about such a ring, and making such conjectures is pretty much pointless before you do that
 
Yeah, right now it's just a random idea, so work is to be done soon on figuring out how to define + and * in this ring
 
But I mean your conjectures aren't even necessarily well defined
 
That's because the operation that is suggesting will allow the underlying set of a group and a monoid to mix in some way and yield either a monoid or group. Without defining the operation itself, nothing further can be said concretely about it. I will figure out how to sort this out
 
@Daminark Three hours of that, jfc
 
3:28 AM
Yeah... It was something. But hopefully that chapter is over now
 
3:49 AM
@Daminark There is a guy who my advisor keeps inviting to talk in the Fractals seminar who is a certifiable crank. He wants to revolutionize quantum physics by getting rid of complex numbers and reducing everything to square matrices with integer entries.
The major innovation is his copyrighted and trademarked operation, the cispose (tm) (c)
it is like a transpose, but only across the other diagonal
 
lol
 
It makes etymological sense
(which is all we need, really)
 
At one point, he did some operation and the number $22/7$ popped out. That HAS to be meaningful because, as we all know, $22/7$ is exactly equal to $\pi$.
 
That's silly
We all know $\pi$ equals exactly $3.14$
 
inorite? $\pi = 3$
 
3:51 AM
pi is 4 get outta here
 
(according to the State of Indiana)
 
$\pi$ is an imaginary number which equals three and whose square equals ten
 
$\pi = 3$, just like GAWD intended!
 
I'm familiar
 
Yas, but have ya accepted the TRUTH intah yer heart?
PRAISE JEEBUS and the perfectly integer value o' PI!
 
3:53 AM
@XanderHenderson ...ow
I mean, for one thing, there's a perfectly simple way to accomplish that with bog-standard matrix operations
 
Is there?
Oh
 
Yep. Let $J$ be a matrix of ones on the anti-diagonal.
 
Conjugate with the antidiagonal matrix and take the transpose
 
in some order
Which I guess is not an unreasonable operation, in that if we quotient it by inner automorphisms it's just the transpose
 
3:57 AM
you can also do the transpose first and then conjugate
since the antidiagonal matrix is symmetric
 
"in some order"
 
lol
yeah, fair
 
It's not like this is basis independent or anything nice though
 
Yeah
I mean, you can do some nice stuff with this but
it's hardly anything deep or revolutionary
 
It singles out the antidiagonal matrix, which has no meaning free of bases
You're reflecting across a hyperplane I think
 
3:59 AM
@Semiclassical You are now in violation of American copyright and trademark law.
 
well, it is nice insofar as $J^2=1$
 

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